SSC CGL Previous Year Question Paper, Tier-2: 18-Jan-2025: Free Practice!

Ans: C

Explanation: To simplify the expression, we need to divide the terms. Remember the rule for dividing exponents with the same base: x^m / xⁿ = x^(m-n). So, let’s break down the problem:

* **a terms:** a⁷ / a⁹ = a^(7-9) = a^-2
* **b terms:** b⁸ / b⁵ = b^(8-5) = b³
* **c terms:** c⁷ / c⁴ = c^(7-4) = c³

Therefore, the simplified form is a^-2 * b³ * c³.

Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: Expand the squares and simplify the expression:
(5z – 12y)² = 25z² – 120zy + 144y²
(12z + 5y)² = 144z² + 120zy + 25y²
So, (5z – 12y)² + (12z + 5y)² – 144z² = (25z² – 120zy + 144y²) + (144z² + 120zy + 25y²) – 144z²
= 25z² + 144y² + 25y²
= 25z² + 169y²

Correct Option: A

Ans: A

nan

Ans: A

Explanation: The total surface area of the toy is the sum of the curved surface area of the cone and the curved surface area of the hemisphere.

The radius (r) of the hemisphere and the cone is 36 cm.
The height (h) of the cone is 105 cm.

First, calculate the slant height (l) of the cone:
l = sqrt(r^2 + h^2) = sqrt(36^2 + 105^2) = sqrt(1296 + 11025) = sqrt(12321) = 111 cm

Curved surface area (CSA) of the cone = π * r * l = π * 36 * 111 = 3996π cm^2
Curved surface area (CSA) of the hemisphere = 2 * π * r^2 = 2 * π * 36^2 = 2 * π * 1296 = 2592π cm^2

Total surface area of the toy = CSA of cone + CSA of hemisphere = 3996π + 2592π = 6588π cm^2

Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation:
1. **Calculate Cumulative Frequency:**
* 0-5: 3
* 5-10: 3 + 5 = 8
* 10-15: 8 + 4 = 12
* 15-20: 12 + 2 = 14
* 20-25: 14 + 7 = 21
* 25-30: 21 + 6 = 27
* 30-35: 27 + 5 = 32

2. **Find the Median Class:**
* Total frequency (N) = 32
* N/2 = 32/2 = 16
* The median class is the class interval where the cumulative frequency is greater than or equal to 16. This is the 20-25 class (cumulative frequency of 21).

3. **Apply the Median Formula:**
* Median = L + [(N/2 – CF) / f] * w
* L = Lower limit of the median class = 20
* N = Total frequency = 32
* CF = Cumulative frequency of the class before the median class = 14
* f = Frequency of the median class = 7
* w = Width of the median class = 5

* Median = 20 + [(16 – 14) / 7] * 5
* Median = 20 + (2/7) * 5
* Median = 20 + 10/7
* Median = 20 + 1.42857
* Median ≈ 21.43

Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation: The volume of a right circular cone is given by the formula V = (1/3)πr²h, where r is the radius and h is the height.
Given: diameter = 12 cm, so radius (r) = 12/2 = 6 cm, and height (h) = 5 cm.
Using π = 22/7, we have:
V = (1/3) * (22/7) * 6² * 5
V = (1/3) * (22/7) * 36 * 5
V = (22 * 12 * 5) / 7
V = 1320 / 7
V ≈ 188.57 cm³

Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation: We are given x = 8 + √5 and y = 8 – √5. We need to find x² + y².
x² = (8 + √5)² = 8² + 2 * 8 * √5 + (√5)² = 64 + 16√5 + 5 = 69 + 16√5
y² = (8 – √5)² = 8² – 2 * 8 * √5 + (√5)² = 64 – 16√5 + 5 = 69 – 16√5
x² + y² = (69 + 16√5) + (69 – 16√5) = 69 + 69 = 138

Correct Option: A

Ans: B

Explanation:
Given that (sec θ – tan θ) / (sec θ + tan θ) = 1/9.
We know that sec²θ – tan²θ = 1, which can be written as (sec θ – tan θ)(sec θ + tan θ) = 1.
Let sec θ – tan θ = x. Then, the given equation can be written as x / (1/x) = 1/9, or x² = 1/9. Since θ is in the first quadrant, sec θ > 0 and tan θ > 0, and hence sec θ – tan θ > 0. Thus, x = 1/3, meaning sec θ – tan θ = 1/3.
Since (sec θ – tan θ)(sec θ + tan θ) = 1, we have (1/3)(sec θ + tan θ) = 1, which implies sec θ + tan θ = 3.
Now we have two equations:
1) sec θ – tan θ = 1/3
2) sec θ + tan θ = 3
Adding these two equations gives 2sec θ = 10/3, or sec θ = 5/3.
Subtracting the first equation from the second gives 2tan θ = 8/3, or tan θ = 4/3.
Since sec θ = 5/3, cos θ = 3/5. Using the Pythagorean identity, sin²θ + cos²θ = 1, we have sin²θ + (3/5)² = 1, or sin²θ = 1 – 9/25 = 16/25. Since θ is in the first quadrant, sin θ = 4/5.
Now, we want to find the value of (sin θ – tan² θ) / (sin θ + tan² θ). We have sin θ = 4/5 and tan θ = 4/3, so tan² θ = 16/9.
Substituting these values, we get:
(4/5 – 16/9) / (4/5 + 16/9) = [(36 – 80) / 45] / [(36 + 80) / 45] = (-44 / 45) / (116 / 45) = -44 / 116 = -11 / 29.

Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: We follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

1. 4³ = 64
2. 0² = 0
3. 22² / 2² = 484 / 4 = 121
4. 7 x 6 = 42
5. Now substitute the values: 64 – 0 + 121 – 8 + 42 = 219

Correct Option: C

Ans: D

Explanation: Let the radius of the base of the cone be r cm, slant height be l cm, and the height be h = 63 cm.
The area of the base = πr².
The curved surface area = πrl.
According to the question, the curved surface area is five times the area of the base:
πrl = 5πr²
l = 5r
We know that l² = r² + h²
(5r)² = r² + 63²
25r² = r² + 3969
24r² = 3969
r² = 3969/24 = 165.375
r = sqrt(165.375) = 12.86 approximately.
Therefore, r^2 = 165.375.
Volume of the cone = (1/3)πr²h
Volume = (1/3) * (22/7) * 165.375 * 63
Volume = 22 * 165.375 * 3
Volume = 10914.75 cm³

Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The cost price of 10 articles is ₹15. The selling price of one article is ₹1.7, so the selling price of 10 articles is 10 * ₹1.7 = ₹17. The profit is ₹17 – ₹15 = ₹2. The profit percentage is (Profit / Cost Price) * 100 = (₹2 / ₹15) * 100 = 13.33%.

Correct Option: C

Ans: D

Explanation: Let the shares of P, Q, and R be 5x, 3x, and 4x respectively. According to the problem, P gets ₹ 1,500 more than R. So, 5x – 4x = 1500. This simplifies to x = 1500. Q’s share is 3x, so Q’s share is 3 * 1500 = 4500.
Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation: Since AB = 21 cm, BC = 20 cm, and AC = 29 cm, we can check if it’s a right-angled triangle using the Pythagorean theorem: AB^2 + BC^2 = 21^2 + 20^2 = 441 + 400 = 841. Also, AC^2 = 29^2 = 841. Since AB^2 + BC^2 = AC^2, the triangle ABC is a right-angled triangle with the right angle at B. In a right-angled triangle, the circumradius is half the length of the hypotenuse. The hypotenuse is AC = 29 cm. Therefore, the circumradius = 29/2 = 14.5 cm.

Correct Option: D

Ans: B

Explanation:
Let Anil’s age be A and Beena’s age be B.
Given that B – A = 5 (since Beena is older than Anil) => B = A + 5
Dinesh’s age = 3A
Let Charu’s age be C. Then Beena’s age B = 2C.
The difference between Dinesh and Charu’s ages is 45, so 3A – C = 45 or C – 3A = 45
Since B = A + 5 and B = 2C, we have A + 5 = 2C, or C = (A + 5)/2
Substitute C in the age difference equation.
Case 1: 3A – C = 45
3A – (A + 5)/2 = 45
6A – A – 5 = 90
5A = 95
A = 19
B = A + 5 = 19 + 5 = 24
C = (A + 5)/2 = (19 + 5)/2 = 24/2 = 12
Dinesh’s age = 3A = 3 * 19 = 57
Dinesh – Charu = 57 – 12 = 45 (matches the given information)
Dinesh + Charu = 57 + 12 = 69
Case 2: C – 3A = 45
(A + 5)/2 – 3A = 45
A + 5 – 6A = 90
-5A = 85
A = -17 (age cannot be negative, so this case is invalid)

Therefore, Dinesh’s age is 57 and Charu’s age is 12.
The sum of their ages = 57 + 12 = 69 years.

Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: First calculate 60% of 75: (60/100) * 75 = 45. Then calculate 1/5 of 25: (1/5) * 25 = 5. Finally, subtract the second value from the first: 45 – 5 = 40.
Correct Option: C

Ans: C

Explanation: First, calculate the number of days from February 14, 2023, to April 28, 2023. February 2023 has 28 days (since 2023 is not a leap year), so there are 28 – 14 = 14 days remaining in February. March has 31 days, and April has 28 days. Thus, the total number of days is 14 + 31 + 28 = 73 days.

The simple interest formula is: SI = (P * R * T) / 100, where P is the principal, R is the rate, and T is the time in years.

In this case, P = ₹2000, R = 6.5%, and T = 73/365 years.
SI = (2000 * 6.5 * 73) / (100 * 365)
SI = (2000 * 6.5 * 73) / 36500
SI = 949000 / 36500
SI = 26

Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: We have a system of three linear equations with three variables X, Y, and Z. We need to solve for Y.

1. **Eliminate X from the second and third equations:**
Subtract the second equation (X – Y + Z = 9) from the first equation (X – 2Y + 2Z = 16):
(X – 2Y + 2Z) – (X – Y + Z) = 16 – 9
-Y + Z = 7 …(4)

Multiply the second equation (X – Y + Z = 9) by 2:
2X – 2Y + 2Z = 18
Subtract the third equation (2X – 3Y – Z = 9) from this result:
(2X – 2Y + 2Z) – (2X – 3Y – Z) = 18 – 9
Y + 3Z = 9 …(5)

2. **Solve for Y using equations (4) and (5):**
From equation (4): Z = 7 + Y
Substitute this into equation (5):
Y + 3(7 + Y) = 9
Y + 21 + 3Y = 9
4Y = 9 – 21
4Y = -12
Y = -3

Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: Given that tan(x + y)tan(x – y) = 1, we can write tan(x + y) = 1/tan(x – y).
We know that cot(θ) = 1/tan(θ). Therefore, tan(x + y) = cot(x – y).
Also, we know that cot(θ) = tan(90° – θ). So, tan(x + y) = tan(90° – (x – y)).
Since the tangents are equal, their arguments must differ by a multiple of 180 degrees (or π radians). In this case, we can assume they are equal to get the most basic relationship.
Therefore, x + y = 90° – (x – y).
Simplifying, x + y = 90° – x + y.
2x = 90°
x = 45°.
Therefore, tan(x) = tan(45°) = 1.

Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides. Therefore, if the ratio of the areas is 121:225, then the ratio of the corresponding sides is the square root of this ratio. The square root of 121 is 11, and the square root of 225 is 15. So, the ratio of the corresponding sides is 11:15.
Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: Let the ages of the three persons be 2x, 5x, and 7x. The average age is given as 56 years. Therefore, (2x + 5x + 7x)/3 = 56. This simplifies to 14x/3 = 56. Multiplying both sides by 3 gives 14x = 168. Dividing both sides by 14, we get x = 12. The age of the youngest person is 2x = 2 * 12 = 24 years.
Correct Option: C

Ans: A

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: Let P(A) be the probability that A hits the target and P(B) be the probability that B hits the target.
P(A) = 2/3, P(B) = 3/4.
The probability that A hits and B misses is P(A) * (1 – P(B)) = (2/3) * (1 – 3/4) = (2/3) * (1/4) = 2/12
The probability that B hits and A misses is (1 – P(A)) * P(B) = (1 – 2/3) * (3/4) = (1/3) * (3/4) = 3/12
The probability that exactly one of them hits the target is the sum of these two probabilities: 2/12 + 3/12 = 5/12

Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation:
Since ABC is a right-angled triangle with angle B = 90 degrees and tan A = √3, we know that A = 60 degrees (because tan 60° = √3).
Also, A + B + C = 180 degrees, and B = 90 degrees. Therefore, 60 + 90 + C = 180, which implies C = 30 degrees.
Now, we need to calculate sin A cos C + cos A sin C and cos A cos C – sin A sin C.

1. sin A cos C + cos A sin C = sin 60° cos 30° + cos 60° sin 30° = (√3/2)(√3/2) + (1/2)(1/2) = 3/4 + 1/4 = 1.
2. cos A cos C – sin A sin C = cos 60° cos 30° – sin 60° sin 30° = (1/2)(√3/2) – (√3/2)(1/2) = √3/4 – √3/4 = 0.
The question asks to find the values of sin A cos C + cos A sin C and cos A cos C – sin A sin C. This can also be observed by using the trigonometric identities.
sin A cos C + cos A sin C = sin(A + C) = sin(60° + 30°) = sin(90°) = 1
cos A cos C – sin A sin C = cos(A + C) = cos(60° + 30°) = cos(90°) = 0.

Therefore, the values are 1 and 0.

Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation: First, convert the speeds to m/s:
Sarita’s speed: 20 km/hr = 20 * (5/18) m/s = 50/9 m/s
Kavita’s speed: 16 km/hr = 16 * (5/18) m/s = 40/9 m/s
Since they are moving in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their speeds: (50/9) + (40/9) = 90/9 = 10 m/s.
The distance they need to cover to meet for the first time is the length of the track, which is 2200 m.
Time = Distance / Relative Speed = 2200 m / 10 m/s = 220 seconds.
Convert 220 seconds to minutes and seconds: 220 seconds = 3 minutes and 40 seconds.

Correct Option: D

Ans: A

Explanation: The discount amount is calculated by multiplying the total purchase amount by the discount percentage. In this case, the discount is 26% of ₹2,050. So, the saving would be (26/100) * 2050 = 0.26 * 2050 = 533.

Correct Option: A

Ans: B

Explanation: Let the total work be the LCM of 12 and 16, which is 48 units. Rani’s efficiency is 48/12 = 4 units/day. Adya’s efficiency is 48/16 = 3 units/day. In 2 days (Rani and Adya working alternately), the work done is 4 + 3 = 7 units. In 12 days (6 cycles of 2 days), the work done is 6 * 7 = 42 units. Remaining work = 48 – 42 = 6 units. On the 13th day, Rani works and completes 4 units. Remaining work = 6 – 4 = 2 units. On the 14th day, Adya works and completes 3 units. So, the remaining 2 units are completed in 2/3 of a day. Therefore, the total time taken is 12 + 1 + (2/3) = 13 (2/3) days.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The first 91 even numbers are 2, 4, 6, …, 182. The average of an arithmetic sequence is the average of the first and last term. In this case, the average is (2 + 182)/2 = 184/2 = 92. Alternatively, the average of the first ‘n’ even numbers is n+1. Therefore the average of the first 91 even numbers is 91+1=92.
Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation: Let’s first calculate the population in 2018. The population in 2016 (A) increased to 50,000 in 2018 at a rate of 6% per annum. So,
Population in 2018 = A * (1 + 6/100)^2 = 50000
A * (1.06)^2 = 50000
A * 1.1236 = 50000
A = 50000 / 1.1236 ≈ 44499.82 which approximates to 44500.

Now let’s find the population in 2020 (B). The population in 2018 is 50000, and this continues the same trend (6% per annum) for the next 3 years. Therefore:
Population in 2019 = 50000 * 1.06 = 53000
Population in 2020 (B) = 53000 * 1.06 = 56180

So, B – A = 56180 – 44500 = 11680

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

nan

Ans: A

Explanation:
Let’s analyze the milk and water content in each vessel.

Vessel A: Milk = (4/9) of the mixture, Water = (5/9) of the mixture
Vessel B: Milk = (2/3) of the mixture, Water = (1/3) of the mixture

When x litres of A and y litres of B are mixed:
Milk: (4/9)x + (2/3)y
Water: (5/9)x + (1/3)y

The ratio of milk to water in the final mixture is 8:5. Therefore:
[(4/9)x + (2/3)y] / [(5/9)x + (1/3)y] = 8/5

Cross-multiplying:
5[(4/9)x + (2/3)y] = 8[(5/9)x + (1/3)y]
(20/9)x + (10/3)y = (40/9)x + (8/3)y
(10/3)y – (8/3)y = (40/9)x – (20/9)x
(2/3)y = (20/9)x
y/x = (20/9) / (2/3)
y/x = (20/9) * (3/2)
y/x = 10/3
x/y = 3/10

Therefore, the ratio x : y is 3 : 10

Correct Option: A

Ans: B

nan

Ans: C

nan

Ans: D

nan

Ans: C

nan

Ans: D

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: The pattern seems to be a mirrored shape along both axes with a circle or similar curved shape in one of the four corners of the shape. Option IV will properly complete the pattern

Correct Option: D

Ans: B

From the two dice positions, we can see that the letter T is common.
In the first position, the letters adjacent to T are V and Q.
In the second position, the letters adjacent to T are U and S.
This means that V, Q, U, and S are adjacent to T. Since a die has six faces and all letters are different, the only remaining letter P must be opposite to T.

Explanation: By observing the two positions of the dice, we can identify the faces adjacent to T. In the first position, V and Q are adjacent to T, and in the second position, U and S are adjacent to T. Since all six letters (P, Q, S, T, U, V) are used, the only letter not adjacent to T must be opposite to it. Therefore, P is opposite to T.

Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: Let’s analyze each conclusion based on the given statements.
* **A < B ≥ C > D** and **C > E ≥ F = G**

* **A. G > C:** From the second statement, C > E ≥ F = G. This means C > G. Therefore, G > C is **false**.

* **B. D < F:** From the first statement, C > D. From the second statement, C > E ≥ F. Combining these, we cannot definitively say anything about the relationship between D and F. D could be less than, greater than or equal to F. Therefore, D < F is **false**.

* **C. A < E:** From the first statement A < B ≥ C. From the second statement, C > E. Combining these statements, the relationship is not directly established. Therefore, A < E is **false**.

* **D. B > G:** From the first statement, B ≥ C. From the second statement, C > E ≥ F = G. Combining these statements, B ≥ C > E ≥ F = G. Therefore B > G is **true**.

Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The statement claims hydroelectricity is cleaner and greener. Argument I supports this claim by highlighting the lack of CO2 emissions. Argument II, however, contradicts the “greener” aspect by mentioning the negative environmental impact on local flora and fauna due to submersion, thus weakening the statement’s claim.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

nan

Ans: A

Explanation: The question asks for the percentage of white marbles.
Statement I only provides information about blue and green marbles, but not white marbles. Therefore, it is not sufficient.
Statement II states that he has 3 white marbles out of 10 marbles. This allows us to calculate the percentage of white marbles (3/10 * 100% = 30%). Thus, statement II alone is sufficient.

Correct Option: A

Ans: B

Explanation: Let’s analyze the given information step by step:

1. Q is on Saturday.
2. Two people have exams between S and Q. This means S can either be on Monday or Thursday.
3. R is before S and after P. This means P, R, and S are consecutive exams (in that order) or P, then possibly some other exams, then R and S, but not in reverse.
4. U is immediately after T.

Let’s consider the two possibilities for S:

* **Case 1: S is on Monday:** This would mean Q is on Thursday (two days after Monday). But we know Q is on Saturday. So, this is not possible.
* **Case 2: S is on Thursday:** Then Q must be on Saturday (two days after Thursday). This is consistent with the given information. Also, because R comes before S and after P, the schedule would be P-R-S.
Since U is immediately after T, we have:

* Monday: P
* Tuesday: R
* Wednesday: S
* Thursday: X (T or U – Not possible. S must be before Q.)
* Friday: T
* Saturday: Q
* Sunday: U

The schedule must be revised.

Let’s consider a second approach:

* Q = Saturday
* Two between S and Q. So S is on Thursday.
* R is before S and after P. This can mean P, R, S or P, X, R, S
* U is immediately after T.
So we can determine:

* Monday = P
* Tuesday = R
* Wednesday = V
* Thursday = S
* Friday = T
* Saturday = Q
* Sunday = U

If the order is P, R, S, then:

P can be on Monday
R must be on Tuesday
S is on Thursday (Two between S and Q)
Q = Saturday
T and U must be Friday and Sunday (T comes before U)
So the remaining slot (Wednesday) must be V’s exam.

Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: The original number is 5238641. Arranging the digits in ascending order gives us 1234568.

Comparing the original number and the rearranged number:
* Original: 5 2 3 8 6 4 1
* Rearranged: 1 2 3 4 5 6 8
The digit ‘2’ and ‘3’ remain at the same positions.

Correct Option: C

Ans: D

Explanation: The cause is the issuance of duplicate electricity bills.
* **Effect I:** Power shutdowns are unrelated to the cause. While power shutdowns can happen, they aren’t a direct consequence of people receiving multiple bills.
* **Effect II:** This directly addresses the issue. The clarification about a technical glitch and its resolution is a logical response to the problem.
* **Effect III:** This is a likely effect. People with duplicate bills would likely go to the electricity board to inquire, leading to long queues.

Therefore, both II and III are plausible effects.

Correct Option: D

Ans: A

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: Substitute the given operators into the equation and then solve it using the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses/Brackets, Exponents/Orders, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), and Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).
The equation becomes: 55 x 5 – 13 x 2 + 14 / 7 – 15 x 5 + 102 / 2 + 15
= 275 – 26 + 2 – 75 + 51 + 15
= 275 – 26 + 2 – 75 + 66
= 249 + 2 – 75 + 66
= 251 – 75 + 66
= 176 + 66
= 242
Correct Option: D

Ans: A

nan

Ans: A

Explanation: The word “she” appears in both sentences. The code for “she” will be the code that appears in both coded phrases. Comparing “ak jb mp” and “mp pt kt”, the common code is “mp”.
Correct Option: A

Ans: D

nan

Ans: B

Explanation: The pattern is as follows: In each pair, the second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by itself, and then adding the first number to this product.
A. 18 – 18*18 + 18 = 324 + 18 = 342, NOT 198.
B. 13 – 13*13 + 13 = 169 + 13 = 182, NOT 144
C. 31 – 31*31 + 31 = 961 + 31 = 992, NOT 341.
D. 22 – 22*22 + 22 = 484 + 22 = 506, NOT 242.

However, only one option can follow the pattern. Let’s analyze the options and find the correct formula.

A. 18 * 11 = 198
B. 13 * 11 = 143, which is close to 144. But it is 13^2 + 5 = 174 != 144.
C. 31 * 11 = 341
D. 22 * 11 = 242

Therefore, A doesn’t follow the pattern of multiplying by 11, B doesn’t follow a clear pattern, C & D follows the same pattern.
Let’s assume it could be : (first number * (first number + 1)) .
A. 18 * 11 = 198
B. 13 * (13 + 1) = 13 * 14 != 144
C. 31 * (31 + 1) = 31 * 11 != 341
D. 22 * (22 + 1) = 22 * 11 = 242.

So, B doesn’t follow the general pattern observed in others.

Correct Option: B

Ans: B

nan

Ans: C

Explanation: Let’s analyze the statements:
* The original statement says Solver S uses systematic problem-solving methods and achieves efficiency and accuracy.
* Statement (I) is a direct consequence of the original statement. Since Solver S is efficient and accurate, and we know they use a systematic approach, it’s reasonable to infer that the approach contributes to the efficiency and accuracy.
* Statement (II) is a direct restatement of part of the original statement; specifically, the phrase “Solver S utilizes systematic problem-solving approaches, similar to expert puzzle solvers.”

Therefore, both (I) and (II) can be inferred.

Correct Option: C

Ans: C

Explanation: Let’s analyze the statements using a Venn diagram.
* “All sheeps are cows” means the sheep circle is entirely inside the cow circle.
* “Some cows are horses” means there’s an overlap between the cow and horse circles.
* “All horses are jackals” means the horse circle is entirely inside the jackal circle.

Now let’s evaluate the conclusions:
* (I) “Some jackals are cows” – Since horses are inside jackals and some cows are horses, then some jackals *must* be cows. This conclusion is correct.
* (II) “Some horses are sheeps” – Since sheep are cows, and some cows are horses, then no information is given about if the sheep are one of those cows that are horses. This conclusion is incorrect.

Therefore, only conclusion (I) follows.

Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The logical order for this process is: First, you Conceptualize (3) an idea. Then, you Design (1) based on that concept. After that, you Develop (4) the product or system based on the design. Next, you Test (2) the developed product. Finally, you Implement (5) the tested product.

Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The logical order for paper production is: First, you have pulp (4). Then, the pulp goes through a press (5). After pressing, the paper is dried (3). The result is a finished paper (2), and finally, the finished paper is delivered (1).
Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The series follows a pattern:
* 9 * 0.5 + 0.5 = 5
* 5 * 1 + 1 = 6
* 6 * 1.5 + 1.5 = 10.5
* 10.5 * 2 + 2 = 23
* 23 * 2.5 + 2.5 = 60

Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: In the given set (215, 185, 135), the difference between the first and second number is 215 – 185 = 30. The difference between the second and third number is 185 – 135 = 50.
In the second set (276, 246, 196), the difference between the first and second number is 276 – 246 = 30. The difference between the second and third number is 246 – 196 = 50.
Following the same pattern: the difference between the first and second numbers should be 30 and difference between the second and third number should be 50.
Checking the options:
A. (238, 208, 158) : 238 – 208 = 30 and 208 – 158 = 50. This matches the pattern.
B. (269, 229, 199) : 269 – 229 = 40 and 229 – 199 = 30. This does not match the pattern.
C. (294, 264, 224) : 294 – 264 = 30 and 264 – 224 = 40. This does not match the pattern.
D. (255, 235, 205) : 255 – 235 = 20 and 235 – 205 = 30. This does not match the pattern.

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: In each pair, the second word represents an activity or function associated with the first. Pray is done at a temple, movies are watched at a theatre, and dinner is eaten at a restaurant. However, one does not necessarily swim in a park. Parks often have swimming pools but swimming itself is not intrinsic to the purpose of a park the way prayer is to a temple, movies to a theatre, or dinner to a restaurant.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: Let’s break down the relationships:
* U is the father of N.
* N is the sister of T, meaning U is also the father of T.
* T is the wife of I, making I the son-in-law of U.
* I is the son of L, meaning L is the parent of I. Since I is married to T, and T is U’s daughter, therefore U and L are in-laws. U is the father of T and L is I’s parent therefore U is the father of the wife of L’s son.

Therefore, U is the father of the son’s wife.

Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: The relationship between the first letter cluster and the second one in each pair can be understood as follows:
* **#: XAF**
The pattern is: the first letter in # + 19 = X, the second letter in # + 1 = A, the third letter in # + 5 = F
Let’s consider the options and test them:
* A. BBJ: B+19=U, B+1=C, J+5 = O. This doesn’t match the pattern.
* B. BEJ: B+19=U, E+1=F, J+5 = O. This doesn’t match the pattern.
* C. BEJ: B+19=U, E+1=F, J+5 = O. This doesn’t match the pattern.
* D. BEJ: B+19=U, E+1=F, J+5 = O. This doesn’t match the pattern.
* **SVA : %**
The pattern is the same as above, with letters reversed, using the values for #:
* S – 19 = J, V – 1 = U, A – 5 = V. It is not correct
* Test the result from the previous step on this letter cluster (SVA)
* S – 19 = (we wrap backwards as 19 goes below 0) O, V – 1 = R, A – 5 = W
* S – 19 = O, V – 1 = R, A – 5 = W. If # = BEJ, and the pair is reversed, the solution must be ORW.
* The original pairing with SVA is not right.
Testing the provided options with the pattern for SVA:
* ORW: O – 19 = F, R – 1 = Q, W – 5 = R (doesn’t match)
* ORP: O – 19 = F, R – 1 = Q, P – 5 = L (doesn’t match)
* Since the pattern does not appear to be correct. However, testing the relationship between SVA and ORW
S – 19 = O, V – 1 = R, A – 5 = W
Thus, BEJ: XAF and SVA: ORW will work.

Correct Option: D

Ans: A

Explanation: The idiom “pull out all the stops” means to do everything possible to achieve a particular goal or to make something a success. It originates from organ music, where pulling out all the stops allows all the pipes to be played, creating the loudest and most impressive sound.

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The word “leisurely” means in a relaxed and unhurried way. Therefore, the best option is “without haste,” which conveys the same meaning.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The correct sequence should build a logical sentence. The sentence starts with “India has been a land” (1). Then, it describes the history, mentioning how it valued learning (Q). It then contrasts this with the universality of education (S, R). Lastly, it concludes by highlighting the high regard for learned individuals (P) in the context of the sentence 6.

Correct Option: B

Ans: B

Explanation: The idiom “cold feet” means to be nervous or scared about doing something. Person A is expressing nervousness, and Person B is reassuring them by saying they are just getting nervous.
Correct Option: B

Ans: B

Explanation: The sentence describes a current and ongoing situation. The correct verb tense to use is the present simple tense “poses,” as it accurately reflects the persistent threat climate change presents. “Will pose” refers to the future and is not suitable here. “Posed” is the past tense and “will be posing” is the future continuous tense, neither of which fit the context.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The sentence aims to address the effects of climate change. “Mitigate” means to make something less severe, serious, or painful. This aligns perfectly with the context of lessening the negative impacts of climate change. “Widen,” “inflate,” and “maximize” do not fit the context, as they don’t make sense when describing actions to reduce the impacts of climate change.

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The blank requires a modal verb indicating a strong obligation or necessity for nations. “Must” implies a mandatory requirement. “Might,” “could,” and “would” suggest possibility or a conditional action, which are less suitable in this context of a necessary commitment.

Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: The sentence refers to a future, and the only option that makes sense in the context of planning for a sustainable future is “generations”. The other options are not relevant to the topic of climate change or creating a sustainable future.
Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation: The passage explicitly states that “the INA’s efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.” This surrender removed a key ally and source of support (weapons, training, etc.) for the INA. The other options are not directly stated as being the primary cause of the INA’s failure.
Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The passage explicitly states that Subhas Chandra Bose “was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal.” Therefore, the correct answer is military campaigns.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The passage explicitly states that the Japanese were interested in having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. While they were also fighting against the British Empire, the primary, stated motivation was their own expansionist goals.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The passage states that Bose’s slogan ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement and a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism. This directly connects the slogan to the fight against British rule.
Correct Option: A

Ans: D

nan

Ans: A

Explanation: “A clarion call” means a clear and forceful demand or appeal. In the context of the passage, it refers to the strong urging for social reforms following economic hardship and minor revolts.

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The passage describes the French Revolution, and the blank is asking for a word to describe the point the revolution “reached” in 1789. “Pinnacle” means the highest point of development or achievement. The revolution reaching its pinnacle in 1789 makes the most sense in the context.
Correct Option: C

Ans: C

Explanation: The word “Inherent” means existing in something as a permanent, essential, or characteristic attribute. Therefore, the most appropriate synonym is “Natural.”
Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: The passage explicitly states, “they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis.” This clearly indicates that chlorophyll is the main pigment.
Correct Option: A

Ans: B

Explanation: The passage primarily discusses the characteristics of algae, their diversity (unicellular, multicellular, aquatic, terrestrial, etc.), their photosynthetic abilities, their classification, and examples like lichens and blue-green algae. While other options are mentioned, they are secondary to the overall description of algae.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The passage states that algae do not have stems, roots, or leaves, which are features found in vascular plants. Option A reflects this difference directly. Option B is incorrect because vascular plants are multicellular. Option C is incorrect as the passage highlights the differences between algae and vascular plants. Option D is incorrect as the passage states that vascular plants have stems, roots and leaves.
Correct Option: A

Ans: B

Explanation: The passage explicitly states that a “multiphyletic group” indicates “no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related.” This directly answers the question.
Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: The most logical sentence structure is to start with the subject, “the origin of the Moon” (c). Then the verb phrase “was long a mystery, and” (b) follows. After this “three competing theories emerged to solve it” (d), which is further clarified by “beginning in the 19th century” (a). So, the correct order is cbad.

Correct Option: D

Ans: C

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: The error lies in the phrase “it be much quicker.” The sentence is expressing a future possibility (“when the new road is finished”), so the correct tense to use would be “it will be much quicker” or “it’ll be much quicker”. “Be” is the base form of the verb and is not used in this context.
Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The incorrectly spelled word is “guage”. The correct spelling is “gauge,” which means to estimate or determine the magnitude, amount, or volume of something.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The correct spelling of the word is “nipped,” which means to cut off or pinch something. The sentence should read “All criminal attitudes must be nipped at the bud.”
Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: The word “accumulated” means to gather or collect something over time. The antonym would be a word that means to distribute or spread out.
* **Bunched:** means to gather or form into a compact mass, which is similar to “accumulated”.
* **Garnered:** means to collect or gather, which is a synonym of “accumulated”.
* **Spared:** means to refrain from harming or destroying, which isn’t related to collecting.
* **Scattered:** means to disperse or spread things over a wide area, which is the opposite of collecting.

Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The word “Generous” means showing a readiness to give more of something, especially money, than is strictly necessary or expected.
* Magnanimous: generous or forgiving, especially toward a rival or someone less powerful than oneself. (Synonym)
* Altruistic: showing a disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being of others. (Synonym)
* Selfish: (of a person, action, or motive) lacking consideration for other people; concerned chiefly with one’s own personal profit or pleasure. (Antonym)
* Benevolent: well meaning and kindly. (Synonym)

Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The word “Enhance” means to improve or increase the quality or value of something. An antonym is a word with the opposite meaning. “Impair” means to weaken or damage something. The other options are not antonyms of enhance. Enrich (to improve the quality of something) is a synonym, Miracle refers to an extraordinary event, and Relevance is the state of being connected to the topic.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The word that best fits the sentence is “cast,” meaning to throw away or discard. “Caste” refers to a social class, “coast” is land near the sea, and “cost” is the price of something.
Correct Option: A

Ans: D

Explanation: The correct preposition to use here is “upon”. “Depend upon” means to rely on something or someone. The sentence means that since luck isn’t always on our side, we should rely on our own efforts to succeed.
Correct Option: D

Ans: A

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: The word “bear” means to endure or tolerate something, especially pain or hardship. “Beer” is an alcoholic beverage. “Bare” means uncovered or without anything on it. “Buyer” is someone who purchases something. The most appropriate word to complete the sentence is “bear” because it fits the context of enduring pain.
Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation: The sentence requires a superlative adjective to describe the mango. The word “sweetest” is the superlative form of the adjective “sweet.” It indicates that the mango is the most sweet fruit compared to all other fruits.
Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The sentence refers to Mr. Amit Kumar, a male. Therefore, the possessive pronoun that agrees with the subject is “his.”
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The phrase “a sudden and violent change or upheaval” describes a state of disruption and instability.
* Tranquility means a state of peace and calm.
* Turbulence means violent or unsteady movement of air or water, or of some other fluid. This aligns with the definition.
* Serenity means the state of being calm, peaceful, and untroubled.
* Equanimity means mental calmness, composure, and evenness of temper, especially in a difficult situation.

Correct Option: B

Ans: B

Explanation: The given group of words refers to someone incapable of error.
* **Inevitable** means certain to happen; unavoidable.
* **Infallible** means incapable of making mistakes or being wrong.
* **Impregnable** means unable to be captured or broken into.
* **Inimitable** means so good or unusual as to be impossible to copy; unique.

The word that accurately captures the meaning of “one who cannot make a mistake” is “infallible”.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: The original sentence is in indirect speech. To convert it to direct speech, we need to identify who said what directly. The past perfect tense (“had been postponed”) in the indirect speech becomes the present perfect or past tense (“has been postponed” or “was postponed”) in direct speech, depending on the original tense. Since the reporting verb is “informed” (past tense), the direct speech will also be in the past tense. Options B and D use the present tense “informs”, which is incorrect. Option C has “was being postponed” which changes the meaning from the original sentence, because the exam was already postponed not in the process of being postponed. Therefore, the correct direct speech should be “The exam has been postponed.”

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The original sentence is in indirect speech. When converting to direct speech, the reported command is directly quoted. The key changes involve tense (which is usually the same), pronouns, and demonstrative adjectives. In this case, “those” becomes “these” because “those” refers to the riots, which are happening close to the speaker or in the present, when quoted directly. Also the use of “their” in option A is incorrect. Option D has an article “the” missing.

Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The passive voice of “Everyone was surprised at his speech” should focus on what was surprised, in this case, “everyone”. The correct passive form uses the past participle of the verb (surprised) and a form of the verb “to be” (was). Option B, “His speech surprised everyone” is not passive; it is in active voice. Option C, “His speech was surprising to everyone” is in the active voice, using the adjective “surprising”. Option A has the wrong verb tense. The correct option is therefore the one that means “Everyone was surprised by his speech”. This implies a change in the structure of the sentence, where the object of the original sentence becomes the subject, and the subject of the original sentence becomes the agent (though sometimes omitted). Since none of the options correctly represents the passive voice, and the question is framed as a simple transformation into the passive voice, there is a discrepancy. Considering the grammar principles and the intent of converting to a passive voice, the closest would be: Everyone was surprised *by* his speech. However, since no option fully achieves this and the options presented are not entirely correct as presented, the best attempt at a ‘passive’ version, although awkward, would be to focus on his speech as the source of the surprise. As the question is structured, the best approach is to select the answer that most closely resembles the expected passive form. The most fitting choice here is the one that uses ‘surprised’ with the correct past participle and tense, with the meaning that is closest to the original sentence, though the transformation is imperfectly achieved by the answers.

Correct Option: B

Ans: B

Explanation: The active voice sentence is “The explosion caused serious damage in Ukraine.” To convert it to passive voice, we need to identify the object (“serious damage”) and the subject (“the explosion”). The passive voice structure is “object + be verb + past participle + by + subject”. Applying this, and considering the tense of the original sentence (simple past – “caused”), the correct passive voice sentence is “Serious damage was caused by the explosion in Ukraine.” Option B is the only one that accurately reflects this. Option A uses “has been caused,” which implies present perfect, which is not the correct tense. Options C and D have incorrect sentence structures and word order.
Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: The original sentence is in the active voice and in the simple past tense (Did + hear). To convert it to the passive voice, we need to use the past participle of the verb (“heard”) and the appropriate form of “to be.” The question form requires inverting the helping verb and the subject. The correct passive form uses “Was” + “heard” and inverts the subject and helping verb like the original question.
Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: When converting a sentence from direct speech to reported speech, the tense of the verb in the direct speech often changes. Specifically, the present tense “am” in the original sentence needs to change to the past tense “was”. Also, pronouns need to be adjusted to agree with the subject. In this case, the pronoun “my” changes to “her” to agree with the female scientist.
Correct Option: C

Ans: D

nan

Ans: B

Explanation: The logical flow of the paragraph starts by introducing the scenario (B – Large MNCs order from Indian exporters). Then it elaborates on the MNC’s objective (C – seeking cheapest goods). To meet this demand, Indian exporters act (D – cutting costs). A reason for cost-cutting is given (A – dealing with raw material cost) and finally, an example of cost-cutting measures (E – employing temporary workers). Therefore, the correct order is BCDAE.

Correct Option: B

Ans: A

nan

Ans: C

Explanation:
* **A) The Philosophy of the Bomb:** This book was written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra.
* **B) Bandi Jiwan:** This book was written by Sachindranath Sanyal.
* **C) Pather Dabi:** This book was written by Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay.
* **D) Anandmath:** This book was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Matching these gives us: A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: Both the assertion and the reason are true. The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was indeed a decisive battle in Indian history, marking the beginning of Mughal rule. The reason directly explains the significance of the battle. The Mughals, a new group of invaders, came into power due to this battle. Therefore, the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.

Correct Option: B

Ans: B

Explanation: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 1A (CMT1A) is the most common form and is caused by a duplication of the PMP22 gene. This gene is located on chromosome 17.
Correct Option: B

Ans: A

Explanation: Corundum is a naturally occurring aluminum oxide mineral (Al2O3) that is known for its hexagonal barrel-shaped prisms. Chalcopyrite is a copper iron sulfide mineral, olivine is a magnesium iron silicate mineral, and dolomite is a calcium magnesium carbonate mineral.
Correct Option: A

Ans: D

Explanation: The Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985, was amended in December 1991. This amendment brought public sector enterprises under the jurisdiction of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR), as part of the economic reforms implemented in India during that period. The BIFR was responsible for determining the sickness of industrial companies and suggesting revival strategies.

Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The National Digital Health Mission (NDHM), now known as Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), was launched on August 15, 2020, which is Independence Day in India.
Correct Option: C

Ans: C

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: Walter Fleming, a German biologist, is credited with the first detailed description of mitosis. This was achieved by staining chromosomes and observing their behavior during cell division. This significant work was published in 1882.

Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation: Mathura was a significant center of the Kushana Empire. Kanishka, a Kushana ruler, shifted the empire’s capital from Purushapura (Peshawar) to Mathura.
Correct Option: D

Ans: B

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The population of India did increase by more than 181 million between 2001 and 2011. Statement 2 is also correct. The percentage decadal growth (growth over a 10-year period) did register the sharpest decline since independence during 2001-2011, indicating a slowing down of the population growth rate.

Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: The Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally sponsored and funded road and highways project of the Government of India. It is implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Correct Option: D

Ans: A

Explanation: Waterspouts are essentially tornadoes that form over water. They are characterized by a rotating column of air and are generally less intense than land tornadoes. Hurricanes and typhoons are large-scale tropical cyclones, and squalls are sudden, localized increases in wind speed.
Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: An ion with a negative charge is called an anion. A monovalent ion has a charge of +1 or -1. Polyvalent ions have charges other than +1 or -1. A cation has a positive charge.
Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: Before the Green Revolution, Indian agriculture heavily relied on traditional farming methods. Farmers used outdated technology, leading to low productivity. Furthermore, the sector was highly dependent on rainfall patterns, making it vulnerable to droughts and floods. Infrastructure like irrigation systems and reliable access to fertilizers and pesticides were also lacking. Option B is incorrect because advanced technology and high productivity were not characteristic of pre-Green Revolution India. Option C is incorrect because the key aspect was not advanced technology but a lack thereof. Option D is incorrect as it mentions abundant infrastructure, which was also absent.

Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: Mumbai, being a coastal city, experiences a moderate climate due to the influence of the sea. The sea moderates the temperature, leading to relatively small differences between the hottest and coldest months. Delhi is known for extreme temperatures, with hot summers and cold winters. Bhopal, while inland, has a more moderate climate than Delhi, but experiences more temperature variation than Mumbai. Srinagar, being located in the Himalayas, experiences extreme temperature fluctuations.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 significantly altered the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers. It inserted clauses that made the President “bound by” the advice of the Council of Ministers. The President was previously expected to act in accordance with the advice, but the 42nd Amendment made it mandatory.

Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: A monoatomic gas consists of single atoms not bonded to each other. Oxygen (O2), Hydrogen (H2), and Chlorine (Cl2) exist as diatomic molecules. Xenon (Xe) is a noble gas and exists as single atoms.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation:
* **i. All isoclines are expansion paths but all expansion paths are not isoclines.** This statement is incorrect. An expansion path is the path traced out by a producer as they increase output, with changing input prices. An isocline is a line connecting points of equal slope on isoquants. All expansion paths are NOT necessarily isoclines and neither are all isoclines necessarily expansion paths.
* **ii. Short-run production functions involve adjusting all inputs, including fixed inputs like land or capital, to affect output.** This statement is incorrect. The short run is defined as a period where at least one input is fixed. Therefore, only variable inputs can be adjusted to affect output in the short run.
* **iii. Stock resources are the resources which are not used in one period of production but can be stored for a later period.** This statement is correct. Stock resources are those that can be held in reserve. For example, a stock of timber.

Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: Ampere’s Law, in its original form, describes the relationship between the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed loop and the electric current passing through the loop. Statement 1 is correct. Maxwell’s equations, however, do incorporate charges and currents, not just their absence. They describe the relationship between electric and magnetic fields, charges, and currents. Statement 2 is therefore incorrect.

Correct Option: D

Ans: A

nan

Ans: B

Explanation: The Brønsted-Lowry theory, independently introduced in 1923 by Johannes Nicolaus Brønsted and Thomas Martin Lowry, defines acids as proton (H+) donors and bases as proton acceptors. This theory introduced the concept of conjugate acid-base pairs. Arrhenius theory defines acids as substances that produce hydrogen ions (H+) in aqueous solution and bases as substances that produce hydroxide ions (OH-) in aqueous solution. Lewis theory defines acids as electron pair acceptors and bases as electron pair donors. Davy’s theory does not relate to acid-base conjugate pairs.
Correct Option: B

Ans: C

Explanation: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Home Minister of Independent India. He is also known as the “Iron Man of India” for his role in the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union.

Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: The term “ecosystem” was first used in 1935 by A.G. Tansley, not in 1956. However, in 1956, Francis Evans wrote a paper where he defined the ecosystem as the fundamental unit in ecology.
Correct Option: A

Ans: B

nan

Ans: D

Explanation: The World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event in April 2023 was won by D Gukesh.
Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation:
1) Search Bar: The search bar’s primary function is to locate files and folders based on keywords entered by the user. This corresponds to option (d).
2) Quick Access: Quick Access typically shows recently accessed files and folders. This corresponds to option (a).
3) Wildcards: Wildcards are used to refine searches when you don’t know the full file name or the exact characters within it. This aligns with option (c).
4) File Sorting: File sorting functionality allows users to group and arrange files based on various attributes like name, date, size, etc. This corresponds to option (b).

Therefore, the correct mapping is 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.

Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation:
* **Processes:** The “Processes” tab shows all running applications and background processes, displaying their resource consumption (CPU, memory, disk, network).
* **Performance:** The “Performance” tab provides an overview of the system’s resource usage, including CPU, memory, disk, and network.
* **Startup:** The “Startup” tab lists programs that automatically launch when Windows starts, allowing you to enable or disable them to improve boot times.
* **App History:** The “App History” tab displays resource usage statistics for Windows Store apps.

Based on these descriptions, the correct matching is: 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d.

Correct Option: D

Ans: A

Explanation: (i) is true because the CPU clock speed, measured in Hertz (Hz), determines how many instructions the CPU can execute per second. A higher clock speed means more instructions are executed in a shorter time, thus increasing execution speed. (ii) is true because cache memory is a small, fast memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions. This allows the CPU to retrieve information much faster than accessing the main memory (RAM), thus improving overall performance.

Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation: Templates in PowerPoint provide a pre-designed layout and style, including fonts, colors, and backgrounds, across all slides. This ensures a consistent look and feel throughout the presentation, making it more professional and cohesive. Options B, C, and D are not the primary functions of a template.
Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: In Microsoft Excel 2003, the maximum number of characters that can be entered in a single cell is 32,767 characters. However, the displayed characters within the cell may vary based on the column width, which is limited to 255 characters. Therefore, if you enter a string longer than 255 characters, only 255 characters will be displayed unless you increase the column width. The question asks about the maximum length that can be accommodated, not what is visible.

Correct Option: C

Ans: C

Explanation: The ability to insert and delete slides is fundamental to the organization and flow of a presentation. It allows the presenter to add new information, remove irrelevant content, and rearrange the order of slides to best convey their message and adapt to the audience. Options A, B, and D, while features of PowerPoint, aren’t directly related to the core advantage of inserting/deleting slides.
Correct Option: C

Ans: D

Explanation: DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) stores data using capacitors. These capacitors, over time, leak charge and lose their data. Refreshing the DRAM periodically rewrites the data, recharging the capacitors and preventing data loss. The other options are not the primary reason for refreshing.
Correct Option: D

Ans: D

Explanation: Patch management software is specifically designed to automate the process of identifying, downloading, and installing software updates (patches) without requiring manual intervention from the user. An intrusion detection system monitors for malicious activity. Secure Boot ensures the operating system starts up safely, and a firewall controls network traffic.
Correct Option: D

Ans: C

Explanation: The correct action to send a received email to another person while keeping the original is to forward it. The ‘Forward’ option allows you to include the original email in the new message. ‘Archive’ is used to save the email in a folder. ‘Reply All’ would only send a reply to everyone on the original email thread, and ‘Reply’ only replies to the sender.
Correct Option: C

Ans: C

Explanation: A switch is the most common device used to connect computers within a Local Area Network (LAN). It forwards data packets only to the intended recipient, making the network more efficient than a hub (which broadcasts to all devices). A router connects different networks (e.g., a LAN to the internet). A repeater amplifies the signal to extend the network’s reach. A modem converts digital signals to analog signals and vice versa for internet connectivity.
Correct Option: C

Ans: C

Explanation: Styles in MS Word are pre-defined formats that allow you to apply a consistent look to text elements like headings, titles, and subtitles. Applying a style automatically formats the text according to the style’s specifications (font, size, color, etc.). Macros automate repetitive tasks, Tables organize data, and Templates provide pre-designed document layouts, but Styles specifically handle the consistent formatting of text elements.
Correct Option: C

Ans: A

Explanation: The correct keyboard shortcut for adjusting column width in MS Excel is Alt + H + O + W. This opens the “Format” menu (Alt + H), then selects “Column” (O), and finally, “Width” (W).
Correct Option: A

Ans: A

Explanation: The keyboard shortcut for adding bullets in MS Word 2010 is Ctrl + Shift + L. This shortcut toggles the bulleted list on and off.
Correct Option: A

Ans: C

Explanation: The correct answer is Secure Socket Layer (SSL). SSL (now replaced by TLS) encrypts the data transmitted between a web browser and a web server, ensuring that sensitive information like passwords, credit card details, and personal data remains confidential. Decryption is the process of converting encrypted data back to its original form. Hashing is used to create a unique “fingerprint” of data for integrity checks, but it doesn’t encrypt the data itself. Compression reduces the size of data for faster transmission, but does not provide security.
Correct Option: C

Ans: B

Explanation: Electronic mail (e-mail) is fundamentally a system for exchanging messages electronically. It involves sending and receiving messages over a computer network like the internet. The other options describe different technologies.
Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) can be erased and reprogrammed electrically, making it reusable. EPROM requires erasure using ultraviolet light. PROM is programmed once and cannot be changed. Mask ROM is programmed during manufacturing.
Correct Option: D

Ans: A

Explanation: Both statements are correct. RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile, meaning it loses its data when the power is off. ROM (Read-Only Memory) stores the firmware, including the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), that is essential for the computer to start up (boot).
Correct Option: A

Ans: D

Explanation: WebRTC (Web Real-Time Communication) is a technology that enables real-time communication (voice, video, and data) within web browsers without the need for plugins or external applications. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files. Email is for sending and receiving messages. VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) is the general technology for making calls over the internet, but WebRTC specifically allows this functionality *directly* in a web browser.
Correct Option: D

Ans: B

Explanation: File Explorer is primarily designed for managing files and folders. It allows users to move, copy, delete, rename, and organize files within the file system. Other options like managing user accounts, modifying system settings, and running diagnostic tests require different tools and applications within Windows.
Correct Option: B

Ans: D

Explanation: Boot sector viruses specifically target the boot sector of storage devices like floppy disks or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard drives. When the computer boots, the boot sector is read, and the virus gains control, infecting the system before the operating system loads. Macro viruses infect documents, resident viruses stay in memory, and direct action viruses infect files when they are executed.
Correct Option: D