SBI PO Prelims 2025 4th Aug 2nd Shift – Question Paper

Q1. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No replacement required’.

If he would have studied harder, he might have passed the exam.

1. If he studied harder
2. If he would study harder
3. If he had studied harder
4. If he has studied harder
5. No replacement required

Q2. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No replacement required’.

She suggested that he goes to the doctor immediately.

1. that he go to the doctor
2. that he gone to the doctor
3. that he had go to the doctor
4. that he went to doctor
5. No replacement required

Directions (3-12): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Over the past two decades, research has emphasized the importance of accessible communication and inclusive programs for people with disabilities. The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that over 1.3 billion people globally live with some form of disability, with communication barriers ranking among the most significant challenges.

For individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing, sign language remains a primary communication tool. Studies from the National Institute on Deafness and Other Communication Disorders show that early exposure to sign language enhances cognitive skills, literacy, and social integration. However, barriers such as a shortage of trained interpreters and limited public awareness persist. In 2017, a targeted study involving 20 individuals with hearing impairments . Findings revealed that while basic signs were widely understood comprehension dropped when regional variations or complex grammatical structures were used, pointing to the need for standardized learning and broader public training.

To address these gaps, several disability-focused associations have implemented bold initiatives, including large-scale sign language training for both disabled and non-disabled individuals. This direct approach fosters mutual understanding and reduces social isolation.

Recent research also highlights the growing role of music- based interventions in disability support. While commonly associated with auditory experiences, music therapy leverages rhythm, vibration, and movement to stimulate

multiple senses. The Journal of Music Therapy reports that tactile vibrations from instruments—particularly percussion—can be felt and enjoyed by those with hearing impairments. For individuals with mobility or cognitive challenges, structured music activities improve coordination, memory, and emotional well-being.

Music therapy extends beyond passive listening. Interactive methods—such as drumming circles, rhythm exercises, and movement-to-music sessions—encourage active engagement. Neurological studies indicate these activities promote neuroplasticity, strengthening brain connections and aiding rehabilitation for those adapting to long-term disabilities.

Many associations have joined international collaborations to share expertise on combining communication tools with creative therapies. Global reports confirm that integrating sign language accessibility with music-based programs leads to measurable improvements in social participation, self-confidence, and mental health.

In conclusion, evidence strongly supports combining accessible communication with sensory-inclusive activities like music therapy. By merging research-backed strategies with community engagement, organizations can create inclusive environments that empower individuals with disabilities to participate fully and thrive.

Q3. According to the passage, what is a key finding from the 2017 study involving individuals with hearing impairments?

1. Most participants were unfamiliar with any form of sign language.
2. Regional and grammatically complex signs posed challenges in comprehension.
3. Participants showed greater preference for music therapy over sign language.
4. Urban participants understood signs better than rural participants.
5. Sign language was entirely misunderstood without written translation.

Q4. Identify the correct statements based on the passage:

• 1. Music therapy benefits only those with hearing impairments.
  2. Structured music-based activities aid memory and emotional well-being.
  3. Communication barriers are among the most significant challenges for people with disabilities.
     1. Only II
     2. I and II
     3. II and III
     4. I and III
     5. All I, II, and III

Q5. What do neurological studies reveal about interactive music-based therapy?

1. It helps build social bonds among caregivers and families only.
2. It decreases attention span and discourages repetitive learning patterns.
3. It strengthens brain connections and aids rehabilitation for long-term disabilities.
4. It causes overstimulation in individuals with sensory sensitivity.
5. It encourages passive reflection and slower recovery processes.

Q6. Which of the following is NOT a challenge mentioned in the passage regarding sign language adoption?

1. Overuse of sign language in non-disabled populations.
2. Inconsistent understanding of regional sign variations.
3. Lack of trained interpreters in communities.
4. Limited public awareness of sign communication.
5. Difficulty understanding complex grammar in signs.

Q7. Choose the most appropriate synonym for the word

“bold” as used in the sentence:

1. Cautious
2. Timid
3. Selective
4. Highlight
5. Fearless

Q8. Choose the most appropriate synonym for the word

“direct” as used in the passage.

1. Right
2. Indirect
3. Confused
4. Straightforward
5. Subtle

Q9. Choose the most appropriate antonym for the word

“joined” as used in the passage.

1. United
2. Participated
3. Engaged
4. Separated
5. Combined

Q10. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

1. analyzed the impact of music therapy on speech development in deaf children
2. investigated the challenges in understanding sign language
3. surveyed how often participants used facial expressions instead of hand signs
4. assessed the role of interpreters in urban healthcare communication
5. examined vocabulary retention in bilingual hearing- impaired classrooms

Q11. Identify the statements that are true based on the passage:

• 1. Music therapy is limited to auditory stimulation and is not suitable for individuals with hearing impairments.
  2. The 2017 study found that sign comprehension declined when regional differences and complex grammar were involved.
  3. Sign language training is being conducted for both disabled and non-disabled individuals to promote inclusion.
     1. Only II
     2. Only III
     3. I and III
     4. II and III
     5. All I, II, and III

Q12. Identify the statement(s) that is/are false based on the passage:

• • • 1. The passage states that music therapy is mostly a passive listening activity aimed at calming emotional distress.
      2. According to the WHO, over one billion people globally are affected by communication disorders.
      3. One challenge in sign language adoption is the difficulty in understanding regional and grammatical variations.
         1. Only I
         2. I and II
         3. Only II
         4. II and III
         5. All I, II, and III

Directions (13-17): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

He discovered many patients were diagnosed before turning 65.

Recently, scientists found a genetic marker tied to early- onset Alzheimer’s.

Alzheimer’s is a brain disorder that damages memory and thinking over time.

Using this lead, Rohan studied data from 48 states in the USA.

This result points to the need for early detection and preventive therapy.

This gradual decline is made worse because most treatments only manage symptoms.

Q13. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) A

(c) B

(d) E

(e) C

Q14. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) F

(c) E

(d) B

(e) D

Q15. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) A

(d) E

(e) C

Q16. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F

(b) D

(c) B

(d) C

(e) E

Q17. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1. D
2. E
3. B
4. A
5. C

Directions (18-23): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by a letter. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

Rayan was once a name that echoed in every music hall and award stage. His debut concert was a (A) success—

tickets sold out within minutes, and fans cheered until the early hours of the morning. Music critics described his voice as both raw and celestial, a rare combination that made him an instant (B)________ in the industry. In the beginning, Rayan remained grounded. He credited his team, his parents, and his inspiration—old-school jazz legends. But as the fame grew, so did his (C) _. The humility that once

defined him began to erode. He started arriving late for rehearsals, dismissing his bandmates’ inputs, and even canceled small-town concerts that had once meant everything to him. Slowly, the charm began to wear off. His performances lost their magic, his voice felt strained, and his new songs lacked the emotional (D) that once

captivated audiences. Social media, once filled with praises and fan art, now bristled with harsh reviews and sarcasm. Despite several PR efforts to (E)________ his image, the

audience had moved on. New faces had emerged—fresh voices that resonated with the evolving mood of the times. Rayan’s latest concert barely filled half the arena; the empty seats echoed louder than the applause. Sitting backstage, staring at old photos, Rayan realized how far he had drifted from the soul of his music. A journey that began with passion had been (F) by pride.

Q18. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?

1. mediocre
2. colossal
3. trivial
4. obscure
5. predictable

Q19. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?

1. recluse
2. veteran
3. prodigy
4. novice
5. understudy

Q20. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?

1. discipline
2. diligence
3. humility
4. ego
5. gratitude

Q21. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?

1. detachment
2. resonance
3. monotony
4. volume
5. distortion

Q22. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?

1. look down
2. tear up
3. brush off
4. patch up
5. give away

Q23. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?

1. nurtured
2. dismantled
3. elevated
4. inspired
5. adored

Directions (24-27): The sentence is divided into four segments: (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If the sentence is both grammatically and contextually correct, select “No error” as the correct answer.

Q24. He had scarcely (A)/ stepped out of the (B)/ house than it began (C)/ to rain heavily. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q25. By the time we will finish (A)/ our breakfast and (B)/ leave the house, the (C)/ movie will have already started. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q26. Years of misuse and lack (A)/ of repairs had slowly took (B)/ a toll on the ancient bridge, (C)/ leading to visible cracks and instability. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q27. Nobody saw (A)/ him since the balcony (B)/ collapsed during (C)/ the heavy storm. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q28. In the question below, few words are given in bold which may not be placed in the correctly. Choose the correct interchange needed between these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Developing emotional intelligence helps in (A) building stronger conflicts (B) and managing relationships (C) effectively in professional (D) and personal life.

1. A-B
2. C-B and A-D
3. C-D
4. B-C
5. No interchange required

Q29. In the question below, few words are given in bold which may not be placed in the correctly. Choose the correct interchange needed between these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Effective communication (A) and a clear achieving (B) promote teamwork toward understanding (C) shared goals and ensure progress (D).

1. A-B
2. C-B and A-D
3. C-D
4. B-C
5. No interchange required

Q30. In the question below, few words are given in bold which may not be placed in the correctly. Choose the correct interchange needed between these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Consistent effort (A) and disciplined practice are vital (B) for mastering complex skills (C) and achieving long-term professional success (D).

1. A-B
2. C-B and A-D
3. C-D
4. B-C
5. No interchange required

Q31. In the question below, few words are given in bold which may not be placed in the correctly. Choose the correct interchange needed between these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Staying adaptable (A) and open to learning prepares (B) growth and fosters (C) individuals for unexpected opportunities and challenges (D).

1. B-C
2. C-B and A-D
3. A-C and B-D
4. A-B
5. No interchange required

4 |

Q32. In the question below, few words are given in bold which may not be placed in the correctly. Choose the correct interchange needed between these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Careful planning and (A) timely execution in (B) strategies

can (C) significantly improve efficiency and productivity of

(D) challenging situations.

1. A-B
2. C-B and A-D
3. A-C and B-D
4. B-D
5. No interchange required

Q33. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

INCESSANT

• 1. The incessant rain caused severe flooding in several low-lying areas.
  2. His incessant dedication to study ensured he topped the examination.
  3. The speech was incessant for only five minutes before it ended abruptly.
     1. Only (A)
     2. Only (B)
     3. Both (A) and (B)
     4. All of these
     5. Both (A) and (C)

Q34. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

BREAK

• • • 1. They decided to take a short break after working continuously for three hours.
      2. The thief managed to break into the shop without triggering the alarm.
      3. The vase will break beauty once placed on the decorated table.
         1. Only (A)
         2. Only (B)
         3. Both (B) and (C)
         4. All of these
         5. Both (A) and (B)

Q35. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

BORNE OUT

His claims were borne out by the evidence presented during the investigation.

The heavy weight was too much to be borne out by the fragile wooden shelf.

Her success was borne out of years of hard work and consistent effort.

Only (A)

Only (B)

Both (A) and (B)

All of these

Both (A) and (C)

Q36. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

ESSENCE

The essence of her argument was that fairness should be prioritized over profit.

The perfume was made from natural flower essence, giving it a soft and lasting fragrance.

He essence the report to highlight only the main findings for the board meeting.

Only (A)

Only (B)

Both (A) and (B)

All of these

Both (A) and (C)

Q37. The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful order.

1. His simple way of life and integrity had earned him a lot of respect.
2. People from distant villages came to him for advice and help.
3. Hari was known throughout the district as an honest man.
4. They trusted him more than they trusted the officials.
   1. RPQS
   2. RPSQ
   3. PRSQ
   4. QRSP
   5. SRPQ

Q38. The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful order.

1. The noise scared away the tiger.
2. The villagers rushed with sticks and tools.
3. A tiger had wandered into the fields at dawn.
4. The farmer saw it and raised an alarm.
   1. SPQR
   2. RQSP
   3. RSPQ
   4. PQRS
   5. PRSQ

Q39. The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful order.

1. With hard work, she finally cracked the exam.
2. Priya had always dreamt of becoming a civil servant.
3. She faced many challenges along the way.
4. But she never gave up on her goal.
   1. QPRS
   2. QRSP
   3. PRSQ
   4. QSRP
   5. RSPQ

Q40. The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful order.

1. But few paid attention to her warnings.
2. Years later, her predictions proved to be true.
3. Meera often spoke about the climate crisis.
4. She urged people to act before it was too late.
   1. RSPQ
   2. PQRS
   3. RPSQ
   4. QSRP
   5. RSQP

Q41. A and B started a business in the ratio of 7 : 9 respectively and after six months, C joined the business with two times of the capital of A. After one year, the total profit of the business is Rs. 92000. Find the sum of profit of B and C (in Rs.)?

1. 60000
2. 64000
3. 48000
4. 56000
5. 46000

Q42. The area of a rectangle is 216 meters square and the ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 3 : 2. If

diameter of a circle is 1^𝟏th of the breadth of the

𝟔

rectangle, then find the difference between area of the rectangle and circle (in meters square)?

1. 54
2. 72
3. 62
4. 48
5. 60

Directions (43-44): In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option. Compare only numerical values

Q43. Given a > b and a > 4, while b < 5.

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q44. If x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 and 2y2 – 9y + 9 =0, then Quantity I- Product of largest root of both equations Quantity II- ∛729

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Directions (45-47): There is one term is wrong in each series given below. Find out the wrong term of each series.

Q45.14, 16, 12,18, 10, 22, 8

1. 14
2. 16
3. 18
4. 22
5. 10

Q46. 204800, 6400, 400, 50, 12.5, 6.5, 6.25

1. 204800
2. 6400
3. 400
4. 50
5. 6.5

Q47. 19, 23, 32, 48, 73, 109, 154

1. 19
2. 32
3. 154
4. 109
5. 48

Q48. Vessel A contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively. 20 liters of mixture taken out from vessel A and added in vessel B which contains x liters of milk and 30 liters of water. If the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture in vessel B is 11 : 7, then find the value of x?

1. 55
2. 35
3. 41
4. 62
5. 40

Q49. Sneha marks up an article 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of10% on marked price. If Sneha made a profit of Rs. 364, then find the difference between both profits when he sold the same article at 25% profit?

1. 16
2. 14
3. 18
4. 20
5. 24

Q50. The length of train A is 300 meters and it cross a 500 meters long platform in 30 seconds. If length of train B is two times of the length of train A and speed of train B is 198 km/hr, then find the time taken by train B to cross the platform (in seconds)?

1. 30
2. 25
3. 15
4. 20
5. 40

Q51. A alone can do a work in 12 days and B alone can do the same work in 30 days. A and B work together for six days, and then C replaced both. If C complete the 50% of the remaining work, then find the percentage of the work done by C?

1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 10%
4. 15%
5. 5%

Q52. There are 140 cakes in a bucket, and 80 more cakes are added to the bucket. If the cakes are distributed between males and females in the ratio of 7:4, what is the difference between the total number of cakes received by males and females?

1. 30
2. 80
3. 40
4. 60
5. 90

Directions (53-58): The pie chart shows the total number of (sold and unsold) goods by four companies (A, B, C & D). The table shows the items sold out of total good manufactured by these companies.

Q53. Find the difference between average number of goods sold by B & C and number of unsold goods of D.

1. 14
2. 12
3. 10
4. 22
5. 8

Q54. In company E, the total number of goods manufactured is 33 1/3% more than that of D. X/2% of the goods are not sold by E . Find the number of goods sold by E is what percentage of unsold goods of C.

1. 480%
2. 600%
3. 360%
4. 320%
5. 400%

Q55. Find the ratio of unsold goods of B and C together to sold goods of D.

1. 3:8
2. 9:4
3. 3:7
4. 3:2
5. 4:3

Q56. Out of the total goods sold by A, 53 are defective and rest are non defective, and the ratio of non – defective goods sold by A to non-defective goods unsold by A is 2:1. Find the defective goods sold by A.

1. 8
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2
5. 0

Q57. Total goods manufactured by A is what percentage of the good manufactured by C and D together.

1. 48%
2. 40%
3. 75%
4. 80%
5. 70%

Q58. The Goods sold by B are at the rate of 5 Rs each. If he gets the profit of 25%, then find the cost price of all the goods (in Rs).

1. 148
2. 96
3. 106
4. 132
5. 80

Directions (59-64): The bar shows the total number of students in four schools and it also shows the difference between boys and girls in these schools.

Q59. Find the average number of girls in A, C & D.

1. 18
2. 14
3. 16
4. 12
5. 10

Q60. Total girls in A and B together is what percentage of more than that of girls in C.

1. 55.55%
2. 24.55%
3. 56.55%
4. 52.55%
5. 40.55%

Q61. If boys in D increase by 25% and girls decreased by 50%, then find the new number of total students in D.

1. 48
2. 47
3. 46
4. 45
5. 44

Q62. Find the ratio of 50% of total students in B and C to total boys in A and D.

1. 48:31
2. 31:24
3. 31:36
4. 32:41
5. 27:44

Q63. In school E, the ratio of boys and girls be 7: 9 and boys in E is 50% more than girls in A and B together. Find the girls in E.

1. 48
2. 54
3. 36
4. 32
5. 40

Q64. 25% of the total students in C are absent and out of that 10 girls are absent. Find the absent boys in C is how many more/less than total girls in D.

1. 48
2. 22
3. 36
4. 32
5. 40

Directions (65-68): Read the information and answer the following questions.

The information is about the total males and females visits museum in three different days (Monday, Tuesday and Sunday). Total people visit all the three days is 135. Males visit on Sunday is 40% of females visit on Monday. Females visit on Sunday is 5 less than that on Monday. Males and females visit on Tuesday is 20 and 40 respectively. The ratio of people visit on Sunday and Tuesday is 1: 2.

Q65. Find the total females visit to the museum in all day?

1. 85
2. 84
3. 76
4. 62
5. 40

Q66. Find the sum of number of female visits to museum on Monday and male visit on Tuesday.

1. 48
2. 24
3. 45
4. 32
5. 40

Q67. The cost of entry of female is Rs 5 each and the cost of entry of a male is Rs x each. If the total amount collected by the museum on Tuesday is Rs 220, then find x.

1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
5. 1

Q68. Find the ratio of total people visited to museum on Sunday to Monday.

1. 1:8
2. 2:1
3. 3:2
4. 2:3
5. 4:1

Q69. The average weight of 12 students in a class is ‘y’ kg. Two new students joined them with total weight of 72 kg and the average weight of the class is decreased by y/16 kg. If the weight of heavier student out of two students who joined is y – 24 kg, then find the difference between weight of two students who joined.

1. 10 kg
2. 4 kg
3. 12 kg
4. 8 kg
5. 6 kg

Q70. The monthly income of A is Rs. 50000 and he spends x% of his monthly income on rent, 20% of the remaining monthly income he spends on his children education and half of the remaining monthly income he spends on travelling. If A saves Rs. 18000, then find amount spends by A on travelling is what percent more than that of on rent.

1. 130%
2. 260%
3. 160%
4. 240%
5. 360%

Directions (71-75): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight persons – A, B, C, D, P, Q, R, and S are sitting around a circle table, but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them is facing inside the center and four of them is facing outside the center.

Both the immediate neighbors of A face away from the center. Q faces towards the center and sits to the immediate left of B. A and B face towards the center and sit opposite to each other. Three people sit between Q and R. C and B are the immediate neighbors of D who faces away from the center. C faces away from the center. S is not an immediate neighbor of A.

Q71. Who among the following person sits immediate right of R?

1. P
2. S
3. D
4. C
5. B

Q72. Who of the following person is sitting between B and S when counted from the left of B?

1. P
2. Q
3. D
4. C
5. R

Q73. What is the position of B with respect to D?

1. Second to the left
2. Immediate left
3. Third to the left
4. Second to the right
5. Immediate right

Q74. Which of the following statements is correct about P?

1. P sits second to the left of R
2. P sits second to the right of R
3. Three persons sit between P and C
4. Two persons sit between P and A
5. All are correct

Q75. Who among the following is sitting adjacent to A?

1. P
2. R
3. D
4. C
5. Both P and R

Q76. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PRESENCE’, each of which have as many letters between them as they have in English alphabetical series (both forward and backward direction)?

1. One
2. Three
3. None
4. Two
5. Four

Directions (77-81): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons- M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on different floors of a ten-storey building where ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 10.

Four persons live between N and O who lives immediate below P. N lives on an even numbered floor but not on top floor. Q lives three floors below P. The number of persons live above R is same as the number of persons live below S but they do not live adjacent to each other. T lives adjacent to S. U lives on an odd numbered floor but above V and below M.

Q77. The number of persons live above V is same as the number of persons live below ?

1. P
2. Q
3. N
4. S
5. M

Q78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

1. O
2. Q
3. U
4. S
5. R

Q79. How many persons live between T and O?

1. Two
2. Six
3. Four
4. One
5. Three

Q80. Who among the following lives just above the floor on which N lives?

1. U
2. M
3. T
4. S
5. None of these

Q81. Which among the following is incorrect?

1. P- 10th Floor
2. Q – 7th Floor
3. N – 4th Floor
4. S – 2nd Floor
5. M – 6th Floor

Q82. In the number ‘45787259’, if the digits before 8 are added by 2 and the digits after 8 are subtracted by 1, then how many digits appear after the prime digit, in the new number formed?

1. Two
2. Six
3. Four
4. One
5. Three

Directions (83-85): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are of different height but not necessarily in the same order. A is 2nd tallest person among them. There are two persons between A and B. C is just taller than D but shorter than E. The height of the 2nd tallest person is 177cm.

Q83. Who among the following is the fourth tallest person?

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. F

Q84. If the sum of height of A and D is 300cm, and the height of B is 114cm then what is the sum of the height of B and D?

1. 192cm
2. 263cm
3. 260cm
4. 237m
5. None of these

Q85. Who among the following is the lightest person?

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. F

Directions (86-90): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions:

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W – work on different designation in an organization. The designations are Clerk, PO, SMO, Manager, DG, GM, AGM, DGM (designations are given in increasing order of seniority from clerk to PO respectively). They also like different colors – Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, White, Pink, Silver. The information of persons and colors is not used in the same order as given. At most two persons are junior to T. Two persons are in between T and the one who likes blue color. Q is three posts senior to the one who likes blue color. Four persons are in between Q and the one who likes orange color. R is junior to DG but does not like blue and red color. P is just junior to R but senior to the one who likes green color. Number of persons junior to P is same as the number of persons senior to the one who likes white color. V is not DGM but V is senior to the one who likes white color. The one who likes silver color is three post junior to U. S is just junior to the one who likes yellow color.

Q86. What is the designation of S?

1. SMO
2. GM
3. DG
4. Manager
5. Clerk

Q87. Which of the following color is liked by Manager?

1. Blue
2. Pink
3. Orange
4. Silver
5. Yellow

Q88. U is ____ and likes color.

1. DGM, Red
2. GM, White
3. DG, Blue
4. AGM, Yellow
5. Manger, Pink

Q89. Who among the following likes silver color?

1. The one who is immediate senior to W
2. P
3. The one who is clerk
4. The one who is two posts junior to S
5. S

Q90. Which of the following statement is correct?

• 1. R is not junior to W
  2. S is junior to GM
  3. W does not like green color
     1. Only II
     2. Only I
     3. Only I and II
     4. Only II and III
     5. None is correct

Directions (91-95): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions:

Nine persons purchase different products one after the other. Either four or five persons purchase after K. Three persons purchase between K and L. M purchases just after

L. Number of persons purchase before M is same as after N. O purchases between N and K. Q purchases just after P but before O. R purchases before S but after O.

Q91. How many persons purchase between R and L?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. More than four

Q92. Who purchases the product four persons after M?

1. S
2. O
3. R
4. P
5. K

Q93. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, who among the following is dissimilar to others?

1. N-S
2. O-R
3. Q-K
4. M-P
5. L-Q

Q94. Who among the following is second last person to purchase the product?

1. O
2. L
3. N
4. S
5. R

Q95. Who among the following purchase the product exactly between S and K?

1. R
2. Q
3. P
4. N
5. M

Directions (96-100): Read the given information carefully to answer the related question:

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in a row facing north. They have different elements named copper, nickel, gold, mercury, aluminum, silver and iron. The information is not used in the same order as given.

The one who have gold sits third to the left of D, none of them sits at any of the extreme ends. E sits immediate right of the one who have gold. B and E sit adjacent to each other. The one who have iron sits second to the left of B. Two persons sit between G and F. The one who has mercury sits fourth to the right of G. The one who have copper sits immediate right of the one who has silver. The one who have nickel sits to the left of F and to the right of A.

Q96. C have which of the following element?

1. Aluminum
2. Mercury
3. Nickel
4. Copper
5. Silver

Q97. Who among the following have silver?

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. C

Q98. What is the position of G with respect to A?

1. Second to the right
2. Third to the left
3. Immediate right
4. Immediate left
5. Third to the right

Q99. How many persons sit to the left of the one who have copper?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
5. None of the above

Q100. Choose the correct combination.

1. A – Nickel
2. E – Silver
3. D – Copper
4. C – Mercury
5. G – Gold

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

Practice Banking Exam Topic wise Questions

Next, take these Banking Exam Free Mock Tests

Refer Banking Exam Previous Year Question Papers

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

Practice Banking Exam Topic wise Questions

Next, take these Banking Exam Free Mock Tests

Refer Banking Exam Previous Year Question Papers

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

Practice Banking Exam Topic wise Questions

Next, take these Banking Exam Free Mock Tests

Refer Banking Exam Previous Year Question Papers