SBI PO Prelims 2025 Questions Paper – 4th Aug, 1st Shift

Directions (1-6): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by a letter. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

The controlled use of fire represents one of humanity’s most

(A) technological breakthroughs. Anthropologists believe our ancestors first (B) fire naturally caused by lightning strikes or volcanic activity. This accidental discovery eventually led to the (C) of techniques for creating and maintaining flames.

Early humans likely noticed how wildfires (D) their environment, both frightening and fascinating them. The first intentional use of fire for warmth and protection marked a (E) moment in human evolution. Over millennia, our ancestors developed increasingly sophisticated methods to (F) this powerful element, fundamentally changing the course of civilization.

Q1. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A).

trivial
seminal
negligible
redundant
derivative

Q2. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B).

extinguished
harnessed
squandered
circumvented
deprecated

Q3. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C).

dissolution
revocation
culmination
prohibition
inception

Q4. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D).

pacified
transmute
stabilized
sterilized
obliterated

Q5. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E).

perfunctory
pivotal
arbitrary
nominal
sporadic

Q6. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F).

manipulate
suppress
relinquish
contaminate
dismantle

Q7. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error.

Neither the supervisor nor the workers (A)/ has received (B)/ the updated safety manuals (C)/ from the administration yet. (D)/ No error

A
B
C
D
No error

Q8. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error.

Had she studied (A)/ more attentively, she (B)/ will have cleared (C)/ the entrance test. (D)/ No error

A
B
C
D
No error

Q9. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error.

The manager insisted (A)/ that the reports be submitted (B)/ before noon, as punctuality (C)/ was something he considered to be. (D)/ No error

A
B
C
D
No error

Q10. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error.

The officer was unaware (A)/ that his assistant had (B)/ already submitted the documents (C)/ before he reach the office. (D)/ No error

A
B
C
D
No error

Q11. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error.

He was neither interested in the opera (A)/ nor he wanted (B)/ to spend money (C)/ on the concert tickets. (D)/ No error

A
B
C
D
No error

Q12. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No replacement required’.

Were she to disclose the truth, the entire committee would be in disarray.

If she discloses the truth
If she will disclose the truth
If she was to disclose the truth
If she had disclosed the truth
No replacement required

Q13. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No replacement required’.

It is essential that every athlete completes their registration before the deadline.

completed their registration before the deadline
complete their registration before the deadline
completes his registration before the deadline
should be completing their registration before the deadline
No replacement required

Q14. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No replacement required’.

He narrowly escaped to be arrested by the border guards

while crossing the checkpoint.

being arrested by the border guards
to being arrested by the border guards
to have been arrested by the border guards
having arrested by the border guards
No replacement required

Q15. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No replacement required’.

Despite initial resistance, the village elders eventually came round the proposal.

came across the proposal
came around to the proposal
came towards the proposal
came about the proposal
No replacement required

Directions (16-23): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

The strength of a nation is often measured not only by its economic output but by the stability, resilience, and well- being of its people. Economic growth stems from a combination of natural resources, infrastructure, governance, and, most critically, investments in human capital. Countries that prioritize education and healthcare lay the foundation for long-term prosperity.

A glaring truth in today’s global economy is that wealth alone cannot secure sustainable growth. Natural resource- rich nations may enjoy short-term revenue surges, but without strong institutions and a skilled, healthy workforce, such progress risks becoming fragile. Education equips individuals with the skills needed for innovation, adaptability, and competitiveness. Healthcare, in turn, ensures that citizens can contribute productively over the long term, reducing absenteeism and lowering the economic burden of disease.

For example, some resource-dependent nations have taken steps to diversify their economies by revenue into schools, training centers, hospitals, and public health programs. Angola, in recent years, has made efforts to invest in education and healthcare to reduce its dependency on oil exports. By enhancing human capital, it aims to strengthen productivity and attract investment in sectors beyond its primary industries. While challenges remain, such measures show the potential for transforming short-term gains into lasting national strength.

However, the global economic environment remains uncertain. Trade disruptions, fluctuating commodity prices, and geopolitical tensions can stall development plans, even in countries with ambitious social investment strategies. A grim example is when external shocks force governments to cut back on essential public spending, undermining years of progress in education and health sectors. The capacity to withstand such shocks depends heavily on diversified economies and robust fiscal planning.

National strength, therefore, is not built overnight. It requires consistent policies, transparent governance, and the vision to balance immediate economic needs with long- term development goals. By fostering a population that is educated, healthy, and capable of innovation, nations can ensure resilience in the face of global uncertainty.

In conclusion, economic growth flourishes when it rests on a solid social foundation. Investments in human capital— through education and healthcare—are not only moral imperatives but strategic economic decisions. Whether resource-rich or resource-poor, nations that prioritize these areas strengthen their position in the world and secure prosperity for future generations.

Q16. According to the passage, what is a key limitation of relying solely on natural resource wealth?

It encourages overproduction and causes consistent price hikes in international markets.
It results in the neglect of rural populations who rely on agriculture.
It provides short-term gains but fails to build institutional and human capital strength.
It reduces the need for governance reforms and hinders diplomatic relations.
It ensures that countries focus excessively on education and ignore industrial growth.

Q17. Which of the following is a primary benefit of investing in healthcare, as described in the passage?

Reducing population size through better family planning and urban migration.
Ensuring long-term productivity by lowering disease burden and absenteeism.
Increasing competitiveness in manufacturing exports and international tourism.
Redirecting public funding from education to disease surveillance.
Achieving better diplomatic ties through global medical collaborations.

Q18. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to national strength as per the passage?

1. Investment in human capital such as education and healthcare.
2. Strong governance that ensures consistent and transparent policy-making.
3. High dependence on a single export-oriented sector for economic growth.
  1. Only A
  2. Both B and C
  3. Only C
  4. Both A and B
  5. All A, B, C

Q19. Identify the correct statements based on the passage:

- - 1. Angola has been attempting to reduce dependence on oil by investing in people.
    2. Global uncertainties make social investment in education and health risky and unwise.
    3. Healthcare and education play both moral and economic roles in national development.
      1. Only A
      2. A and C
      3. B and C
      4. A and B
      5. All A, B, C

Q20. Choose the most appropriate synonym for the word

“glaring” as used in the passage.

Obvious
Hidden
Subtle
Dismissible
Moderate

Q21. Choose the most appropriate synonym for the word

“stall” as used in the passage.

Delay
Promote
Encourage
Finalize
Guarantee

Q22. Choose the most suitable word for the given filler.

hoarding
diverting
exhausting
concealing
channeling

Q23. Choose the most appropriate antonym for the word

“grim” as used in the passage.

Harsh
Bright
Serious
Gloomy
Bleak

Q24. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The monk’s teachings, though ancient, still relevance today and continue to seekers across the globe.

retain, inspire
attain, infuse
detain, revive
reclaim, console
preserve, enlighten

Q25. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The army commander’s decision was , made without full information, and it the entire mission.

abrupt, jeopardized
trivial, confirmed
relevant, intensified
delayed, fortified
reckless, determine

Q26. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The writer’s latest novel is a of realism and fantasy, carefully to challenge the reader’s perception.

paradox, hindered
portrayal, composed
blend, crafted
dream, illustrated
merger, dictated

Q27. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The environmental report that the region will face severe drought unless urgent steps are .

assures, neglected
foresees, taken
proposes, eliminated
advocates, dismissed
predicts, resplendent

Q28. In the following question, a sentence is divided into few parts. Rearrange these parts and identify the correct sequence making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

1. for improving
2. student discipline
3. announced a new policy
4. the school principal
  1. BADC
  2. DABC
  3. DCAB
  4. BCAD
  5. No rearrangement required

Q29. In the following question, a sentence is divided into few parts. Rearrange these parts and identify the correct sequence making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

- - 1. levels in the city
    2. on reducing pollution
    3. the new law had
    4. a significant effect
      1. ADBC
      2. ACBD
      3. BDAC
      4. CDBA
      5. No rearrangement required

Q30. In the following question, a sentence is divided into few parts. Rearrange these parts and identify the correct sequence making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

the teacher’s question

thoughtful answers

was designed to elicit

from the students.

ADBC

ACBD

BDAC

CDBA

No rearrangement required

Directions (31-35): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

Coffee prices have shown signs of stabilization as new harvests approach, while orange juice supplies continue to struggle with long-term tree health issues.

Although both beverages were affected by supply shocks, the nature of disruptions and recovery timelines varied.

Meanwhile, orange juice prices spiked as Florida and Brazil, two major producers, battled diseases like citrus greening and hurricane damage.

Over the past year, global prices of both coffee and orange juice have surged significantly due to climate- related disruptions.

This comparative trend highlights how different agricultural vulnerabilities can cause varied price trajectories in global commodities.

Coffee-producing regions in Brazil faced severe droughts and unexpected frosts, leading to lower crop yields and higher prices.

Q31. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) A

(d) E

(e) B

Q32. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B

(b) E

(d) A

(e) D

Q33. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) C

(d) E

(e) A

Q34. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(d) E

(e) F

Q35. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

Directions (36-38): In the following question, a sentence is given with a few highlighted words that may be incorrectly placed. Rearrange these words to form a sentence that is both grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Then, choose the option that represents the correct sequence of the highlighted words.

Q36. The stock sector (A) closed higher today, driven by

gains (B) in the banking market (C).

BAC
CAB
ACB
CBA
No rearrangement required

Q37. Heavy rainfall (A) caused delays in several airport

(B) departing from the city flights (C).

BAC
CAB
ACB
CBA
No rearrangement required

Q38. The new policy areas (A) to improve (B) traffic congestion and reduce (C) air quality in urban aims (D).

BDAC
CABD
DCBA
BADC
No rearrangement required

Q39. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

COUNSEL

1. The psychiatrist offered counsel to help the patient cope with anxiety and emotional distress.
2. The municipal counsel session lasted over four hours as members debated the proposed zoning changes.
3. She sought legal counsel before signing the complex contract to ensure her interests were protected.
  1. Only (A)
  2. Only (B)
  3. Both (A) and (B)
  4. All of these
  5. Both (A) and (C)

Q40. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.GAIT

(I) The security guard stood at the school gait to check the identity cards of visitors.

(II) The doctor assessed the patient’s gait to check for any signs of mobility issues. (III) The entrance gait to the park was decorated with colorful lights for the festival.

- - 1. Only (I)
    2. Only (II)
    3. Both (I) and (II)
    4. All of these
    5. Both (II) and (III)

Directions (41-45): The pie given below shows the total population in five cities (A, B, C, D, E).

Total Population = 1200

15%

(2p+5)%

12%

A B C D

Q41. In city F, the population of males is 50% more than the total population in D and female population is 20% less than the average population of B and E. Find the total population of F (male + females) is what percentage of total population of C?

152.5%
118.46%
122.22%
134.30%
142.29%

Q42. Find the difference between sum of total population of B and C and total population of E?

Q43. In C, the ratio of male and females is 2:5 and female to children is 1:1. Find the ratio of children in C to total population of E.

36:11
21:19
22:21
23:36
25:36

Q44. The population of cities D and E is what percentage more/less than the total population of A and C

53.20
58.46%
52.22%
54.30%
42.29%

Q45. Out of the total population of all the cities 35% are females and 55% of the total population of city D are females. Total females in all the cities except D is how many more/ less than total population of A.

Directions (46-49): Read the information and answer the following question.

The information shows the number of people (i.e 100) three type of beverages like tea, coffee and milk. The ratio of people like only tea and only coffee is 5:3. The people who like only milk is equal to the people who like only tea and coffee together. The people like all the three beverages are

16. The people who like only milk and tea together is 30% more than the people who like only coffee and milk together. People who like only coffee and milk together 20, which is double than the people who like only tea.

Q46. Find the number of people who like only one beverage.

Q47. The people who like coffee and milk is what percentage of people who like all the three beverages together.

314.25%
331.35%
321.21%
315.22%
310.12%

Q48. Find the ratio of people who like only two beverages together to who like only coffee.

14:11
7:10
2:19
19:2
10:7

Q49. Find the difference between people who like milk and tea.

Directions (50 – 55): Bar graph given below shows the total number of graduate and post graduate employees in five different companies. Table shows the difference between graduate and posts graduate employees.

230 225 220 215 210 205 200 195 190 185 180 A B C D E Total number of graduate and post graduate employees
Companies	Graduate – Post Graduate employees
A	4
B	2
C	36
D	90
E	96

Note – Total Employees = Graduate + Post Graduate Employees

Graduate employees are more than Post Graduate Employees

Q50. Find the difference between average number of graduate employees in B and D and average number of post graduate employees in A and E?

(a) 41

(b) 31

(d) 33

(e) 32

Q51. The ratio of manager to associate in company A is 7 : 4, the female manager in A is 16.67% of that of males. Find the difference between male manager in A and total associate in A?

Q52. In company X, the total employees are average number of employees in A, C and E. The ratio of graduate employees in A and X is 1:1. Find the ratio of post graduate employees in X and graduate employees in E?

30:31
57:31
22:57
52:75
75:52

Q53. Find the difference between graduate employees and post graduate employees in all the companies?

Q54. In C, total females who are graduated is 50, Number of males who are graduated is 20 more than females who are post graduated. Males who are post graduated in C are what percentage more/ less than that of post graduated employees in D?

13. 30%
31.31%
22%
38.18%
32%

Q55. In company F, total graduate employees are 121 more than graduate employees in B. Total employees in F are 125% more than graduated employees in A. find the total post graduated employees in F?

Q56. A vessel contains 139.96 litres of a mixture of milk and water, where 80% is milk. If 24.96% of the mixture is removed and 19 litres of water is added, what is the percentage of water in the resultant mixture (approximate)?

Q57. A and B together can do a work in 2T days and A alone can do the same work in 10 days. If B alone can do the work in 5T days, then find the value of T?

Q58. A man spends 12% of his monthly salary on education and 7% on rent. He invests Rs. 10250 of his salary in a SIP and saves 4x% of his salary. If his total monthly salary is Rs. 25000, then find the value of x?

Directions (59 – 61): In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

If x>y
If x≥y
If x<y
If x≤y
If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q59. I: x2 – 20x + 91 = 0 II: y2 – 28y + 195 = 0

Q60. I: x2 – 24x +143 = 0 II: y2 – 13y + 22 = 0

Q61. I. 3𝑥² − 15𝑥 + 18 = 0

II. 𝑦² − 𝑦 − 6 = 0

Q62. The present age of Y is 28 years and four years hence the ratio of age of X to Y will be 7: 8. If present age of Z is 𝟐𝟓% more than the present age of X, then find the age of Z six years ago?

26 years
22 years
20 years
24 years
28 years

Q63. The ratio of the still water speed of boat A and boat B in is 4:5 respectively. The speed of current is 15 km/hr. Boat A takes 4.5 hours to travel 180 km downstream. Find the time taken by boat B to travel 120 km upstream?

20 hours
36 hours
24 hours
12 hours
8 hours

Q64. A and B invest in a partnership business in the ratio of 3:4 and A got Rs.2700 as a profit share out of total profit of Rs. 5100 and the difference between the time period between A and B is 3 months, then find for how many months A kept his investment?

Q65. Two trains A and B of length 400 m and (400 + x) m respectively are moving with same speed. If train A and B crosses a pole in 16 sec and 24 secs respectively then in what time train ‘B’ will cross 400 m long platform?

32 sec
40 sec
45 sec
54 sec
24 sec

Q66. A invested Rs. X in scheme A which offers simple interest at the rate of 12% p.a. for four years and he receives an interest of Rs.2160. If Rs. (X+500) invest in scheme B which offers compound interest for two years at the rate of 10% p.a., then find the interest received by him from scheme B?

Rs.1090
Rs.1205
Rs.1120
Rs.870
Rs.1050

Q67. The average weight of ‘X’ boys in a class is 40 kg and average weight of 18 girls in the same class is 25 kg. If total weight of the class is 1410 kg, then find the value of 2.5X?

Q68. The difference between the circumference of circle P and circle Q is 132 cm. If radius of circle Q is 4 times of radius of circle P, then find the area of circle Q (in square cm)?

2404
2464
2214
2004
2124

Q69. A retailer marks up an article 35% above its cost price and earn Rs 96 by giving 20% discount on the marked price. If he sells article at 15% discount on marked price then, find retailer’s profit on selling one article?

Q70. If ratio between volume of a cylinder and volume of sphere is 3 : 1, then find the ratio between total surface area of cylinder to total surface area of sphere, radius of sphere is equal to radius of cylinder?

2 : 1
5 : 2
4 : 1
3 : 2
7 : 2

Directions (71-75): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nine boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are kept one above another in a single stack, but not necessarily in the same order. Only one box is kept between box E and box G. Box I is kept three boxes above box G. Box E is kept four boxes below box H. As many boxes are kept between box H and box I as between box D and box E. Box E is kept above box

D. Box F is kept immediately below box C. Only two boxes are kept between box A and box F. Box B is kept above box A.

Q71. Which among the following box is placed five boxes below box C?

Box I
Box E
Box H
Box B
Box G

Q72. How many boxes are kept above box A?

Two
Four
Six
Three
Five

Q73. If all the boxes are arranged in alphabetical order from bottom to the top in alphabetical order, then how many boxes will not change their position?

Two
Four
One
Three
Five

Q74. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

1. More than four boxes are kept below box C
2. Box G is not kept below box H
3. Box B is kept at the topmost position
  1. Both I and III
  2. Only I
  3. Only III
  4. Both I and II
  5. All I, II and III

Q75. If box F is related to box A in the similar way box C is related to box E, then which among the following box is related to box I?

Box D
Box H
Box G
Box E
Box B

Directions (76-78): In each question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer –

If only conclusion I follows
If only conclusion II follows
If either conclusion I or II follows
If neither conclusion I nor II follows
If both conclusions I and II follow

9 |

Q76. Statements: Only a few publish is rolls Some rolls is account

Some account is demand

Conclusions:

1. No rolls is demand
2. Some publish being demand is a possibility

Q77. Statements: Only a few asset is revenue Some revenue is equity

No equity is fiscal

Conclusions:

Some revenue is not fiscal
All asset being fiscal is a possibility

Q78. Statements: Only a few profit is notice Some notice is expenditure

All expenditure is subsidy

Conclusions:

Some notice is subsidy
No profit is expenditure

Q79. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘NOSTALGIA’, each of which have as many letters between them as they have in English alphabetical series (both forward and backward direction)?

1. One
2. Three
3. None
4. Two
5. Four

Q80. If we form a five-letter meaningful word using the 3rd, 6th, 7th, 9th and 10th letters from the left end of the word “FABRICATING”, then what would be the fourth letter from the left end of that meaningful word? If no meaningful word is formed, mark the answer as X. If more than one meaningful word is formed, mark the answer as Z.

Directions (81-85): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – do different activities in seven different months i.e., January, March, April, June, July, August and November. The activities are – Yoga, meditation, dancing, hiking, cycling, camping and reading.

Cycling is done in the month of 30 days. Three persons are in between S and the one who does cycling. One person is in between S and T. Number of persons after T is same as before the one who does Yoga. P is just before the one who does dancing. More than three persons are in between P and V who does meditation. Hiking is done in the month of 30 days before R. Reading is done before Q who does not do hiking.

Q81. Who among the following does his activity in June?

Q82. Which activity is done in August?

Dancing
Yoga
Reading
Camping
Meditation

Q83. Which of following combination is incorrect?

P – Reading
S – Yoga
T – Camping
V – Meditation
U – Cycling

Q84. Which of the followings statement is correct?

Two persons are in between P and T
Meditation is done in November
U does hiking in June
R does cycling before S
None is correct

Q85. T does camping in the month of _.

June
August
January
July
March

Directions (86-90): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below:

14 persons sit in two parallel rows containing seven persons in each row. A, B, C, D, E, F and G – sit in row 1 and face north while P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – sit in row 2 and face south. But not necessarily in the same order. Persons of row 1 face the persons of row 2.

Three persons sit between B and D. D sits at one of the ends. Two persons sit between Q and the one who faces B. One person sits between Q and T. U sits fourth to the right of S but does not sit opposite to D. One person sits between A and the one who faces S. G sits immediate right of C. P does not face C. Number of persons sit to the right of F and V are equal.

Q86. How many persons sit between R and P?

None
One
Two
Three
Four

Q87. Who among the following faces D?

Q88. Which of the following statement is/are true?

1. P faces G
2. One person sits between F and E
3. R sits at one of the ends
  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only II and III
  4. Only I and III
  5. All are true

Q89. Four of the following five pairs are similar in a certain manner related to a group, which among the following is dissimilar to others?

S – C
Q – F
V – G
P – A
R – C

Q90. If the persons of row 1 are made to sit in alphabetical order from left, then who will remain at his previous position?

Only B and F
Only F
Only A
Only B and E
No one

Directions (91-95): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Seven persons K, L, M, N, O, P and Q – were born (not in given order) on same date of same month but in different year – 1955, 1961, 1972, 1987, 1998, 2006, 2017. Consider base

year 2025 for age calculation.

M’s age is the cube of a number. 11 years difference between M and K. Three persons are in between K and P. N is 32 years older to Q. L’s age is the cube of a number. Age difference between L and K is more than 10 years.

Q91. How many persons are older to O?

One
Two
Three
Four
More than four

Q92. What is the age difference between N and K?

51 years
32 years
43 years
17 years
None of the above

Q93. Who among the following was born in 1972?

Q94. Four of the following five are similar in a certain way and form a group, who among the following is not related to the group?

Q95. The one who is just younger to O, was born in which year?

1972
1987
2006
1998
2017

Directions (96-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circular table and face the centre. Each of them is from different city- Jaipur, Meerut, Pune, Agra, Bhopal, Ranchi and Surat. All the information given below is not necessarily in the same order.

C sits second to the right of the one who is from Jaipur. Three persons sit between the ones who is from Jaipur and Pune. G sits fifth to the left of the one who is from Pune and is an immediate neighbour of the one who is from Agra. E sits second to the left of the one who is from Agra. D sits fourth to the right A who is from Ranchi. F is not from Jaipur. F and the one who is from Meerut are immediate neighbours. G is not from Bhopal.