SBI Clerk 2025 – Prelims Question Paper, 21st Sep

Directions (1-2): In the question below, a part is omitted which is then replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit into the blank most appropriately.

Q1. The road safety campaign individuals of all

age groups to raise awareness about responsible driving habits.

1. intended
2. targeted
3. sustained
4. pretend
5. maintained

Q2 can policy makers strive to make education

more accessible?

1. How
2. What
3. Whom
4. When
5. Where

Directions (3-7): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as your answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q3. They needs (A)/ to submit the report (B)/ before the deadline (C)/ to avoid penalties. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q4. She was hard (A)/ to convince as she (B)/ is use (C)/ to having her opinions valued.(D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q5. She has being (A)/ working tirelessly (B)/ on the project (C)/ for the past two weeks. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q6. The manager said (A)/ that he will review (B)/ all the applications (C)/ by end of the week. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q7. Neither the teacher (A)/ nor the students (B)/ was aware (C)/ of the sudden schedule change. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Directions (8-17): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Sayer Daheir began a modest printing press many decades ago, choosing to begin his venture with a deep respect for the traditional arts of printing and book binding. At a time when modern technology had started to look more appealing to many entrepreneurs, he remained loyal to the classic methods passed down through skilled craftsmen. Every page that left his workshop carried such precision that visitors often felt, with quiet admiration, that there seems no mistake in the delicate strokes of his work.

As the years moved forward, Sayer gradually welcomed his children and relatives into the business so the heritage would never fade. In 1999, his children and siblings finally

_ the company, having taken it much like one

took a treasure, determined to guard the original techniques their ancestor had loved. They carefully continued the old art of binding and even enriched it by offering metal nameplates to customise each piece, which gave every book an identity of its own. Those who once worked at DA needed no other certificate; the very fact that they had honed their skill there was proof enough of their craftsmanship and dedication.

Today, when tourists arrive, the entire workshop seems to look like a living museum where every corner appears to hold stories of timeless artistry. Generations later, the tradition thrives with the same spirit. Hadiya, Sayer’s fourth-generation niece, now works beside her elders and adds her own quiet strength to the family’s work. The press that Sayer once founded—and which his heirs later took possession from him—remains a place where artistry speaks louder than machines. Visitors continue to be drawn to its quiet charm and enduring beauty.

Over decades and decades, the Daheir legacy has shown that true artistry starts with passion and is sustained by patience. Without relying on modern technology, the company stands as a living example of how dedication and skill can transform simple materials into timeless art, keeping alive a heritage where there seems no mistake in the harmony between tradition and excellence.

Q8. Which of the following best explains why visitors found

the workshop’s pages impressive?

1. The pages were produced using highly advanced machinery imported from overseas.
2. The books featured metallic covers that reflected modern design sensibilities.
3. The design was intricate and consistent, reflecting care and expert craftsmanship.
4. Each book was endorsed by famous artists to increase its credibility.
5. The pages were produced in large batches ensuring mass production accuracy.

Q9. What can be inferred about the transition of the business in 1999?

1. It was done unwillingly due to financial decline and pressure from competition.
2. The family preserved traditional values while adding unique personal touches.
3. It marked a shift from traditional to completely digital production methods.
4. The business lost its original character after Sayer’s

retirement.

1. Outsiders were hired to bring a fresh perspective to the legacy.

Q10. Which of the following statements is CORRECT according to the passage?

• 1. Hadiya represents the latest generation contributing to the Daheir heritage.
  2. In 1999, the original workshop was sold to external investors and rebranded.
  3. The use of metal nameplates was introduced to add uniqueness to the books.
     1. Only A
     2. Both A and B
     3. Both B and C
     4. Both A and C
     5. Only C

Q11. According to the passage, Sayer Dahier

• • • 1. began a modest printing press with deep respect for traditional methods
      2. is the only child in his family
      3. depends on government funding to run the press
         1. Only A
         2. Both A and C
         3. Only B
         4. Both B and C
         5. Only C

Q12. Which of the following best describes the present state of the Daheir printing press?

1. A high-tech printing house competing globally
2. A living museum showcasing timeless artistry
3. A declining business facing losses
4. A government-run heritage site
5. A training school for modern printing

Q13. Which factor best explains why visitors are drawn to the Daheir printing press even today?

1. The company’s use of state-of-the-art machines.
2. The quiet charm and timeless artistry preserved across generations.
3. Its reputation for offering the cheapest printing rates.
4. The frequent government-sponsored art exhibitions held there.
5. The availability of modern e-books alongside traditional books.

Q14. Choose the most suitable phrase to fill the given blank in the passage.

1. handed back
2. lost control of
3. in addition to
4. took possession of
5. modernised the techniques

Q15. Choose the word with the same meaning as “look”

used in the passage.

1. appear
2. watch
3. search
4. glance
5. observe

Q16. Choose the word with the opposite in meaning as

“begin” used in the passage.

1. start
2. initiate
3. cease
4. trivial
5. reduce

Q17. Choose the word with the same meaning as “took”

used in the passage.

1. located
2. monitored
3. required
4. gave
5. purchased

Q18. In the question below, two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.

Column I	Column II
A. The old clock in the hallway	D. through the empty playground
B. The child’s laughter echoed	E. and put it on the cotton ball
C. She took the antiseptic from the bottle	F. chimed softly at midnight

1. A-F, C-D, B-E
2. A-F, B-E
3. B-D, C-F
4. C-E, A-F, B-D
5. A-D

Directions (19-24): In the following question, a passage is given with few blanks. Choose the most suitable option to for the respective blank to make it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.

______________ (A) up, Maria’s love for gardening began in childhood, inspired by afternoons spent with her grandmother in their backyard. Her grandmother patiently taught her how to prepare the soil, sow seeds, and water plants correctly. Watching tiny shoots (B) gave

Maria joy and a sense of responsibility. Over time,

______________ (C) plants became more than a hobby; it became her way of staying close to nature.

As she grew older, Maria noticed people (D)

gardens and pathways with plastics and wrappers, harming the soil and plants. This troubled her deeply. She

_ (E) caring only for her own garden was not

enough if the surroundings continued to suffer.

With the ______________ (F) of protecting nature, Maria organized clean-up drives and encouraged neighbors to join. She educated children about the dangers of plastic waste and the importance of safeguarding greenery. Her efforts inspired many to adopt cleaner habits, turning her passion into a movement for a greener community.

Q19. Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank (A)?

1. rising
2. lifting
3. increasing
4. growing
5. elevating

Q20. Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank (B)?

1. appearing
2. emerge
3. show
4. detain
5. reflect

Q21. Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank (C)?

1. selecting
2. detaching
3. nurturing
4. sprinkling
5. feeding

Q22. Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank (D)?

1. decorating
2. littering
3. spreading
4. showing
5. covering

Q23. Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank (E)?

1. imagined
2. supposed
3. considered
4. rendered
5. realized

Q24. Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank (F)?

1. thought
2. scheme
3. intuitive
4. planned
5. feature

Directions (25-27): For the following question, a sentence is provided with few highlighted words that may be incorrectly positioned. Choose the correct sequence to rearrange these words, ensuring the sentence is both grammatically and contextually correct.

Q25. The irritated (A) of the morning (B) alarm noise (C)

her.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q26. She was climb (A) trying to struck (B) and couldn’t

figure (C) out the way.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q27. The cooled (A) rain scorching (B) the sudden (C)

afternoon.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q28. The question below contains a bolded word, followed by three sentences. Identify the sentence(s) where the meaning of the given word is used accurately. ASCEND

• 1. She tried to ascend the conversation by lowering her tone and avoiding any conflicts.
  2. The company’s profits continue to ascend as a result of their innovative strategies.
  3. The hikers began to ascend the steep mountain trail just after sunrise.
     1. Only A
     2. Both B and C
     3. Only C
     4. Only A and C
     5. All A, B, C

Directions (29-30): The following question gives a sentence which has been divided into five parts which may not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as the answer.

Q29. (A) in the

1. his grandmother tells him
2. freedom movement
3. heroic tales of his grandfather’s role
4. during the 18th century
   1. CBEAD
   2. ACEBD
   3. BDACE
   4. DCEBA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q30.

• • 1. dipped behind
    2. to admire the crimson horizon
    3. the traveler paused
    4. the rolling hills
    5. as the sun slowly
       1. CBEAD
       2. ACEBD
       3. BCDEA
       4. DCEBA
       5. No rearrangement required

Directions (31-35): The line graph given below shows the number of visitor visited on Sunday in five parks (A,B,C,D & E) on Sunday.

Q31. The sum of number of visitors visited Park A and B is what percentage of number of visitors visited in D.

1. 130
2. 120
3. 125
4. 100
5. 105

Q32. Find the difference between number of visitors visited in A and E.

1. 24
2. 20
3. 4
4. 8
5. 12

Q33. Find the ratio of number of visitors visited in B and C together to number of visitors visited E.

1. 15:16
2. 20:21
3. 12:29
4. 29:12
5. 15:17

Q34. In Park F, the number of visitors visited are 20% more than that of D. Find the difference between number of visitors visited in E and F.

1. 35
2. 20
3. 25
4. 10
5. 24

Q35. If the average number of visitor visited in A on Sunday and Wednesday is 25, then find the visitors visited on Wednesday in A.

1. 25
2. 20
3. 35
4. 10
5. 30

Directions (36-40): The table given below shows the number of students from two different schools playing three different games i.e. cricket, hockey and football.

Games	A	B
Cricket	20	35
Hockey	25	30
Football	24	36

Q36. Find the ratio of number of students playing cricket from A to number of students playing football from B.

1. 5:9
2. 9:5
3. 6:5
4. 6:7
5. 6:1

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Q37. Find the average number of students playing cricket in A and hockey in B.

1. 15
2. 20
3. 25
4. 10
5. 5

Q38. Find the sum of total number of students playing hockey and cricket from both the schools.

1. 125
2. 120
3. 90
4. 100
5. 110

Q39. If 20% of students playing cricket in A also plays rugby, then find the difference between number of students playing rugby in A and hockey in B.

1. 28
2. 19
3. 12
4. 26
5. 66

Q40. Find the number of students playing hockey from both the schools are what percentage of 25% of students playing football from both the schools.

1. 366.66
2. 309.69
3. 355.70
4. 388.67
5. 666.66

Directions (41-45): Read the information answer the following question.

There are three companies A, B and C. The sum of male working in all the given companies is 86. The female working in A is 25% more than that of males. The male working in B is 26, which is 14 less than the males in A. the female working in A is equal to female working in C. Total employees working in B is 46.

Q41. Find the total employees working in all the companies.

1. 203
2. 206
3. 207
4. 100
5. 201

Q42. Number of males working in A is what percentage more than the number of males working in C.

1. 120
2. 150
3. 50
4. 200
5. 100

Q43. In C, the ratio of manager to associate are 2:5 and 35 associates are females. Find the male manager.

1. 6
2. 5
3. 4
4. 2
5. 9

Q44. Find the ratio of females working in B and C together to male working in B.

1. 13:35
2. 35:13
3. 7:13
4. 16:17
5. 16:11

Q45. Find the average number of employees working in A and B.

1. 68
2. 69
3. 70
4. 67
5. 66

Q46. The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangle is 5:3, respectively. If twice the perimeter of the rectangle is 96 cm, then find the area of the rectangle (in sq. cm).

1. 225
2. 135
3. 196
4. 180
5. 154

Q47. The sum of the upstream and downstream speed of a boat is 16 km/hr. Find time taken by the boat to cover to cover 60 km in still water (in hours).

1. 7.5
2. 5
3. 6
4. 6.5
5. 8.5

Q48. A bike covers 150 km in 5 hours, and the speed of a car is 4/5 of the speed of the bike. Find the speed of the car. (in km/hr)

1. 25
2. 22
3. 26
4. 20
5. 24

Q49. Scheme X offers simple interest at the rate of 6%

p.a. for 9 years, and the amount invested in Scheme X is Rs. 3000. Scheme Y offers simple interest at the rate of 12% p.a. for 6 years, and the amount invested in Scheme Y is Rs. P. If the difference between the interest received

5 |

from schemes X and Y is Rs 1260, then find P (Interest received from scheme Y is more than that of scheme X).

1. 3000
2. 5500
3. 4000
4. 3500
5. 2500

Q50. Three pipes P, Q, R can fill a tank alone in 8 hours,

12 hours, and 24 hours, respectively. Find the time taken by all three pipes to fill the tank together (in hours).

1. 5
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6
5. 8

Q51. A 150 liters mixture of milk and water contains 30% water. 40 liters of this mixture is removed, and y liters of water is added to the remaining mixture. If in the resultant mixture, the ratio of the milk to water becomes 11:6, then find the value of y.

1. 3
2. 4
3. 8
4. 5
5. 9

Q52. Ravi and Sohan started a business with investments of Rs. 9000 and Rs. 6000, respectively. After Y months, Sohan left the business. If at the end of the year, the profit share of Sohan is Rs 1500 out of a total profit of Rs 4500, then find Y.

1. 9
2. 10
3. 5
4. 6
5. 8

Q53. The ratio of present ages of Aman and Rohan is 3 :

5. Sohan is 8 years older than Aman and 4 years younger than Rohan. Find the age of Rohan after 6 years (in years).

1. 24
2. 40
3. 36
4. 30
5. 32

Q54. An article is sold at 20% profit. If it had been sold for Rs. 240 more, the profit percent would have been 30%. Find the cost price of the article (in Rs).

1. 1500
2. 1200
3. 2400
4. 2200
5. 1800

Q55. A can complete a piece of work in 15 days, and B can complete the same work in 20 days. They start working together but after 4 days, B leaves. In how many more days will A finish the remaining work (in days)?

1. 9
2. 4
3. 6
4. 5
5. 8

Directions (56-65): What value should come in place of question mark?

Q56. 14² + 185÷37= ? -13

1. 107
2. 150
3. 315
4. 220
5. 214

Q57. √256 + 340÷34+39 = 16 + ? + 13

1. 36
2. 33
3. 14
4. 51
5. 93

Q58. 5 ×14 – 246 + ?=58

1. 233
2. 235
3. 234
4. 221
5. 225

Q59. 3333 ÷11+150 ÷ 10 = 10+ ?

1. 164
2. 620
3. 308
4. 210
5. 453

Q60. 4500 ÷ 45 + 332 + 23 = ?

1. 480
2. 325
3. 675
4. 220
5. 455

Q61. 7³ + 4524 + 19% of 600 = ? – 2/5 of 450

1. 5161
2. 5262
3. 5373
4. 5467
5. 7656

Q62. 45² + 3455 – 12% of 8900 = ?

1. 4513
2. 4412
3. 4234
4. 4056
5. 4055

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Q63.

1. 13345
2. 12323
3. 19093
4. 18118
5. 15121

Q64. 5456 + 4563- 1344 – 4244 = ?

1. 4431
2. 4345
3. 4056
4. 5423
5. 3434

Q65.

1. 184
2. 136
3. 58
4. 124
5. 256

Directions (66-70): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on different floors of an eight-floor building where floors are numbered as 1 to 8 from bottom to top respectively. One person live on each floor.

D lives on even number floor above 5th floor. Three persons live between D and B. Number of floors above B is same as the number floors below E. Two persons live between E and

G. C lives immediately above A. More than three persons live between A and H.

Q66. How many persons live above A?

1. None
2. One
3. Three
4. Two
5. More than two

Q67. Who among the following lives four floors below E?

1. A
2. C
3. H
4. D
5. B

Q68. Four of the following five ae similar in a certain manner and related to a group. Which among the following does not belong to the group?

1. D – A
2. C – E
3. C – H
4. B – G
5. F – H

Q69. Which of the following statement is/ are TRUE?

• 1. D lives four floor above F
  2. A lives on floor 6
  3. B lives above H
     1. Only II
     2. Only I and II
     3. Only I
     4. Only II and III
     5. Only III

Q70. E lives on which of the following floor?

1. Floor 5
2. Floor 7
3. Floor 6
4. Floor 4
5. Floor 2

Directions (71-73): In the given question, three statement are followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give an answer.

Q71. Statements:

All Book are Pen. All Pen are Pencil. No Pencil is Paper. Syllogism:

• 1. Some Pencil are Book.
  2. No Pen is Paper.
     1. Only II follow
     2. Neither I nor II follow
     3. Either I or II follow
     4. Only I follow
     5. Both I and II follow

Q72. Statements:

Only a few Tree is Bird. No Bird is Green.

Only a few Green is Plant.

Syllogism:

• • • 1. Some Plant can never be Tree.
      2. Some Tree is not Green.
         1. Only I follow
         2. Either I or II follow
         3. Only II follow
         4. Both I and II follow
         5. Neither I nor II follow

Q73. Statements:

Only a few Fish are Water. No Water is Aqua.

Some Fish is Pond.

7 |

Syllogism:

Some Pond is Aqua.

No Pond is Aqua.

Only II follow

Only I follow

Neither I nor II follow

Either I or II follow

Both I and II follow

Q74. How many pairs of letters are in the word ‘COUNTER’, each of which have as many letters between them as they have according to English alphabetical order (both forward and backward direction)?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. More than four

Directions (75-79): Read the given digit series carefully and answer the related questions:

7 2 5 8 4 1 9 6 3 7 6 2 9 4 5 1 8 1 7 5 2 6 9 4

Q75. How many 7 are immediately followed by an even number?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. None of these

Q76. If the second half of the series is reversed, which digit will be the 15th from the left in the new arrangement?

1. 5
2. 9
3. 6
4. 2
5. 1

Q77. Which digit is 8th to the right of 15th digit from the right end?

1. 1
2. 8
3. 9
4. 7
5. None of these

Q78. If all the square digits are removed from the series, then which digit will be 7th from the right in the remaining sequence?

1. 2
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8
5. 3

Q79. How many odd digits are immediately followed by an even number and immediately preceded by an odd number?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Directions (80-84): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square- shaped table in such a way that four persons sit at each corner (facing inside) and four sit at the middle of each side of the table (facing outside).

G sits third to the right of E. Three persons sit between G and

C. A sits immediate right of C. H sits second t the right of D. B faces F. A sits adjacent to B.

Q80. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group. Which among the following is not related to the group?

1. A – D
2. E – C
3. G – F
4. H – A
5. C – B

Q81. Who among the following sits immediate left of F?

1. C
2. G
3. E
4. D
5. A

Q82. How many persons sit between G and A when counted from the left of A?

1. None
2. One
3. More than three
4. Three
5. Two

Q83. What is the position of H with respect to F?

1. Second to the right
2. Immediate left
3. Third to the left
4. Thord to the right
5. Immediate right

Q84. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in anticlockwise direction starting from A, then position of how many persons will remain unchanged (excluding A)?

1. Four
2. Three
3. Two
4. One
5. None

8 |

Q85. Find the odd one out.

1. STQ
2. FGD
3. WXU
4. KLJ
5. EFC

Directions (86-88): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Point A is 7m west of point B. Point C is 24m north of point

B. Point D is 10m west of point C. Point E is 9m south of point

D. Point F is 12m north of point A. Point G is 4m east of point

F. Point H is 15m north of point K which is 7m east of point B.

Q86. What is the direction of point H with respect to point E?

1. North-east
2. East
3. South-west
4. South-east
5. West

Q87. Four of the following points are similar in a certain manner and related to a group. Which among the following is not related to the group?

1. F – E
2. B – D
3. K – C
4. B – G
5. A – H

Q88. What is the shortest distance between point G and H?

1. 11m
2. 6m
3. 13m
4. 9m
5. None of the above

Directions (89-91): In the given question, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer that which conclusion is logically true as per the statement.

Q89. Statement: N > K ≥ P ≥ L = A > D < R

Conclusion: I. R > L II. D < K

1. if only conclusion I is true
2. if only conclusion II is true
3. if either conclusion I or II is true
4. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
5. if both conclusions I and II are true

Q90. Statement: T < U < E ≥ C < H > L

Conclusion: I. P < T II. L ≤ E

1. if only conclusion I is true
2. if only conclusion II is true
3. if either conclusion I or II is true
4. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
5. if both conclusions I and II are true

Q91. Statement: G < H < E, A ≥ H > S ≥ B

Conclusion: I. A > G II. B > E

1. if only conclusion I is true
2. if only conclusion II is true
3. if either conclusion I or II is true
4. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
5. if both conclusions I and II are true

Q92. If it is possible to make a four-letter meaningful words with the 3rd, 6th, 10th and 11th letter from left of the word ‘BLOCKBUSTER’, then which would be the second letter of that meaningful word from right? If more than one such meaningful word can be formed then give ‘Y’ as your answer. If no such meaningful word can be formed, give ‘X’ as your answer.

1. E
2. B
3. Y
4. R
5. X

Directions (93-95): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

A certain number of persons sit in a row facing north.

Three persons sit between A and B. G sits fifth to the left of

B. G sits third from the left end. C sits third to the right of G. H sits sixth to the right of C. Number of persons to the left of A is same as the number of persons sit to the right of H. Two persons sit between H and D. E sits immediate right of D. F sits fourth to the right of E.

Q93. How many persons are in the row?

(a) 21

(b) 17

(c) 12

(d) 15

(e) 18

Q94. Who among the following sits fourth to the left of E?

(a) B

(b) C

(c) A

(d) G

(e) None of the above

Q95. Who among the following sits adjacent to G?

(a) E

(b) D

(c) F

(d) H

(e) A

Directions (96-100): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept one above another in a stack.

Three boxes are kept between box D and box H. Two boxes are kept between box D and box B. Box B is kept above box

D. Box C is kept five boxes below box B. Number of boxes kept below box C is same as the number of boxes kept above box A. Box G is kept immediately above box E.

Q96. How many boxes are kept between box F and box B?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. More than four

Q97. Which box is placed immediately below box C?

1. None
2. F
3. G
4. C
5. H

Q98. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group. Which among the following is not related to the group?

1. A – H
2. H – F
3. B – G
4. E – D
5. F – C

Q99. Which of the following statement is/are true about box F?

• 1. Box F is kept above Box A
  2. One box is kept below box F
  3. Box F is placed two boxes below box E
     1. Only I
     2. Only II
     3. Only II and III
     4. Only I and III
     5. Only I and II

Q100. If all the boxes are again rearranged in alphabetical order from bottom to top, then how many boxes will remain same on their position?

1. Four
2. Three
3. One
4. None
5. Two

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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Refer Banking Exam Previous Year Question Papers