SBI Clerk Mains 2023 Question Paper

Directions (1-2): Italian super – luxury sports car manufacturer Lamborghini has spread its wings in India. And it, has just opened a dealership in Bengaluru, the IT capital of the country. At a price tag of over Rs. 1 Crore, in addition high import duty barriers. Who will buy a Lamborghini car? Rather, what gives the Italian car maker the confidence to not only drive into India but also expand its presence? If super – luxury brand like Lamborghini is sensing an unfolding big opportunity in a New India, other traditional global luxury car makers have turned very ambitious with new launches.

Q1. Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?

As IT capital, some of the Bengaluru person has the potential to buy Lamborghini car.
People of India will reject other companies’ car and will attracted towards sports car of Lamborghini.
After India, Lamborghini will plan to launch in neighbouring countries of India.
Both (a) and (c)
Both (b) and (c)

Q2. Which statement negates the Italian car maker confidence?

Two years back, BMW has launched their premium cars in India, and they faced huge loss.
Before India, Lamborghini had launched their car in France, and they make a 800-million-dollar profit annually.
After launch, there is a huge demand and query by Indian people.
Both (a) and (c)
Both (b) and (c)

Directions (3-5): In the following questions, the symbols @, # and $ are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given questions. In each of the questions given below statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

P@Q – All P is Q.

P$Q – Only a few Q is P. P#Q – No Q is P.

Q3. Statements: Thread $ Summer; Ranges @ Thread; Ranges $ Numbers; Numbers @ Hills

Conclusions:

1. Summer @ Numbers
2. Hills # Thread
3. Ranges $ Hills
  1. Only I follow
  2. Only III follows
  3. Either I or II follows
  4. Both I and III follows
  5. Both I and II follows

Q4. Statements: Duck $ Club; Verst # Duck; Verst @ Pizza

Conclusions:

- - 1. Pizza @ Duck
    2. Pizza $ Club
    3. Duck # Pizza
      1. Only I follow
      2. Only II follows
      3. Both II and III follows
      4. None follows
      5. Both I and II follows

Q5. Statements: Chase $ Top; Chase @ Road; Angel # Road; String # Angel

Conclusions:

Angel # Chase

String $ Angel

Road # Top

Both I and III follows

Only II follows

Both II and III follows

Only I follow

Both I and II follows

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nine persons lives on different floor in thirteen story building. The bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 13. Four floors are vacant.

A lives on prime numbered floor above floor 5. Four floors gap between A and G. One floor gap between G and H. H lives above G. Five floors gap between H and C. C lives below H. D lives on even numbered floor. Number of floors above D is same as the numbers of floors between J and B. E lives on even number floor just above B. No vacant floor between C and B. F lives two floors above D.

Q6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

Floor 6
Floor 13
Floor 5
Floor 9
Floor 1

Q7. Who live just below and just above J respectively?

D, H
A, G
G, H
F, A
B, G

Q8. How many persons live above E?

Four
Five
Three
Six
More than six

Q9. Which of the following statement is true?

1. Two persons live between J and B
2. C does not live below J
3. The numbers of floors above B is same as the numbers of floor below A
  1. Both I and III
  2. Only III
  3. Both I and II
  4. Only I
  5. All I, II and III

Q10. If F and G interchanged their position then how many persons live between F and H?

Two
One
Three
None
Four

Q11. Which of the following may be cause/effect in respect to amendments in Public Premises act?

1. New ministers and parliamentarians will get accommodation on right time.
2. Hunger strike is called by India against corruption leader Anna Hajare.
3. A RTI was filed by congress MP 2 years ago who had not get Govt. Bungalow for 5 months after becoming MP.
  1. I is cause and II is effect
  2. I and II is effect
  3. I is cause and III is effect
  4. III is cause and I is effect
  5. None of these

Q12. Read the following statements and answer the question.

- - 1. Finally, the government has decided to sell off its sick industrial units, which have become a burden to it.
    2. Corruption, inefficiency and red-tapism have led to heavy losses to the government owned industrial units.

Which of the following is true with respect to the above statements?

- - - 1. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect
      2. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
      3. Both statement I and II are independent causes
      4. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
      5. None of these

Directions (13-17): A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The example of input and its rearrangement is given below:

Input: Gold Plus Era Rain Hat Ask Row Bank Bay Join Step I: Gold Plus Era Rain aks abkn Hat Row Bay Join Step II: PlusEra Rain aks aby dglo abkn Hat Row Join Step III: Plus Rain aks aby aer ijno dglo abkn Hat Row Step IV: Rain aks aby aer aht lpsu ijno dglo abkn Row Step V: aks aby aer aht orw ainr lpsu ijno dglo abkn

Step V is the last step of the given example. Illustrate the above input arrangement and obtain the steps for the asked input given below:

Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink

Q13. What is the position of ‘acr’ in step IV from left end?

Q14. How many words are in between ‘Yen’ and ‘den’ in step II?

One
Two
Three
Four
More than four

Q15. Which of the following word is fourth from right end in step V?

mstu
adln
entx
Yen
aawy

Q16. Which of the following word is third to the left of ‘Next’ in step III?

mstu
den
ikn
adln
aawy

Q17. How many words are starts with vowel in step IV?

Two
Three
Four
Six
Seven

Directions (18-20): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

Q18.

If both conclusions I and II are true.
None is true
If only conclusion III is true.
If both conclusions II and III are true.
If both conclusions I and III are true.

Q19.

If both conclusions I and II are true.
If only conclusion I is true.
If only conclusion III is true.
If both conclusions II and III are true.
If both conclusions I and III are true.

Q20.

If All I, II and III are true
If both conclusions II and III are true.
If only conclusion II is true.
If both conclusions I and II are true.
If both conclusions I and III are true.

Q21. If in the given word ‘DANGEROUS’, if all the vowels replaced by its just next letter and all the consonants replaced by its just previous letter then remove all the repeated letter. After that how many letters between 6th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right according to the alphabetical order?

Q22. District Magistrate of City X gave hard hitting remarks at meeting with all the Pradhan “One village in district is spreading violence in the region”. The growing forces of violence pose a fundamental challenge. We will not tolerate violence in city. Strict action will be taken for the culprits.

Which of the following statement can be inferred from above sentence?

1. Law and order of India is not under control.
2. The district which is indicated by DM will take strong action against violence.
3. DM of city X is too much concern about violent activity and cannot tolerate it.

(a) Only I (b) Only III (c) II and III

(d) Only I and III (e) None of these

Q23. Statement: Fair glow in one week otherwise money will be returned. This is Ayurveda cream and there is no side effect-Use ‘X’ brand cream. -An advertisement in the newspaper A.

Which of the following statement can be assumed from the above sentence?

Normally people like Ayurveda cream.
Very few people read advertisement in a newspaper.
Very few people read the newspaper A.
1. None is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only I, and either II or III are implicit
4. All are implicit
5. None of the above

Directions (24-26): Each of the questions below, consist a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the statements and give answer.

Q24. Six boxes are placed one above the other. How many boxes are placed below B?

- 1. E is placed three boxes above D. B is placed just above F. One box is placed between D and C.
  2. Three boxes are placed between A and E. C is placed just below A. Two boxes are placed between C and F. B is placed above D.
    1. Only I is sufficient
    2. Both I and II together are sufficient
    3. Either I or II is sufficient
    4. Only II is sufficient
    5. Both I and II, even together are not sufficient

Q25. Six persons have different weights to each other. Who among all is 2nd heaviest?

- - - 1. B is heavier than A but lighter than C. Only two persons are lighter than A. D is heavier than F but lighter than E. B is heavier than E.
      2. Only two persons are heavier than C. D is lighter than C but heavier than A. F is lighter than C and B who is not the heaviest. F is heavier than D but lighter than E.

Only I is sufficient

Both I and II together are sufficient

Either I or II is sufficient

Only II is sufficient

Both I and II, even together are not sufficient

Q26. Six persons visit a city in different months i.e., January, February, March, April, May and June. Who among all visits in March?

M visits in the month having 30 days. Two persons visit between M and B. The number of persons visit before B is same as the number of persons visit after G.

Two persons visit between D and N. N visits on one of the months after D. G visits just before N. E visits three months before G but not in February.

Only I is sufficient

Both I and II together are sufficient

Either I or II is sufficient

Only II is sufficient

Both I and II, even together are not sufficient

Directions (27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Four persons A, B, C and D walk to their home from junction in different directions. A goes 7m in the north to reach at point P. He turns his right and goes 11m to reach at point R. Now he turns his left and goes 14m to reach at point S. After that he turns his right and goes 20m to reach at point Q. Finally, he takes his right and goes 18m to reach his home. B goes 9m north to reach at point M. Now he takes his left and goes 26m to reach at point T. After that he takes two consecutive right and goes 9m and 15m to reach at point O and point N respectively. Finally, he takes his left and goes 8m to reach his home. D goes 18m south to reach at point E. Now he takes his right and goes 13m to reach at point G. He takes his left and goes 14m to reach at point I. Now he takes two consecutive right and goes 6m and 17m to reach at point H and point F respectively. Finally, he goes 12m west to reach his home. C goes 9m east to reach at point U. Now he takes his right and walks 27m to reach at point X. After that he takes his left turn and goes 15m to reach at point W. Now he takes his left and goes 11m to reach at point V. Finally, he goes 14m east to reach his home.

Q27. Who ends up farthest from the starting junction?

A
B
C
D
Cannot be determined

Q28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

Q29. Which of the following statement is not true?

1. Total distnace from point U to point V is 53m
2. A’s home is in north-west of C’s home and south-east of B’s home
3. Point G is not in south-west of point R
  1. Both I and II
  2. Only I
  3. Only III
  4. Both II and III
  5. Only II

Q30. The total distance from point E to point F is same as the total distance from point and

point _.

S and P
M and N
U and W
G and D
C and U

Q31. How far is A from his starting point?

Less than 50m
Exactly 55m
Between 55m and 65m
More than 65m
Cannot be determined

Directions (32-36): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it: Eight persons of a family sit in a row facing north. All are related to each other. There are equal number of females and males in the family.

D sits third from an end of the row. C sits second to the left of D. Three persons sit between C and E’s spouse. E’s spouse is the immediate neighbor of E. L’s son sits third to the left of L. Less than two persons sit to the right of L. F sits fourth to the left of F’s brother. C’s brother sits second to the right of F. G sits second to the right of H’s wife. A’s mother sits third to the right of A. A’s sister and A sit adjacent to each other. One person sits between A’s sister and H’s daughter. D is neither H’s wife nor sister of H.

Q32. How many persons sit between H and A’s niece?

Two
One
Three
Four
None of these

Q33. What is the position of D’s nephew from the left end of the series?

Fourth
Third
First
Fifth
Sixth

Q34. Who among the following is grandmother of G?

H’s brother-in-law
C’s aunt
The one who sits just left of H
F’s sister
The one who sits at the right end

Q35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain manner and related to a group, who among the following is not related to the group?

Q36. Which of the following is true?

A is female
L is spouse of F’s father
C sits just right of G
1. Only III is true
2. Only II and III are true
3. Only II is true
4. Only I and II are true
5. All I, II and III are true

Q37. The Internet Cafes are incurring heavy loss these days as people prefer to use Internet in their mobiles PCs and Laptops.

Which of the following statements can be an effective course of action?

The Internet Cafe should be converted into coffee cafe.
The Internet should be closed and new project should be started there.
More funds should be invested on the Internet Cafe.
None of these
Internet Cafe should be banned.

Q38. Statement: At least 80 people have been killed and over 350 wounded in a suicide car bombing in Kabul’s diplomatic quarter this morning, a few hundred metres from the Indian embassy. The area where the explosion took place is close to the presidential palace and several foreign embassies. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj has tweeted that Indian officials are safe.

Which of the following is an appropriate course of action as a fallout of the above terrorist attack?

India should call back its diplomats and officials immediately.
India should proceed to International Court of Justice against the Afghan government.
India should ask the Afghanistan Government to ramp up the security of its officials.
Officials in Afghanistan should be advised to remain indoors as far as possible.
None of these

Q39. In the number ‘684359271’, if all the digits are arranged in descending order, after then, the digits which remain at same place are removed, now find the difference between the sum of odd digits and sum of even digits in the new number thus formed?

Directions (40-44): In the given questions, a group of letters is given followed by some combinations of numbers and symbols. You have to find out the correct combinations for the group of letters based on the conditions given below:

Notes: The alphabets are numbered as 1 to 5 but vowels and the alphabets just before vowel are not numbered here. After numbering till 5, again next five letters are numbered as 1 to 5 and so on.

Vowels are coded as #, @, %, &, $ from U to A respectively. Rest letters are numbered as the highest single digit prime number.

Conditions:

If both first and last alphabets of the word are either consonant or vowel, then the alphabets which are just next to the vowel (within the word) are coded with the code of Z (except the last vowel).
If there are more than two vowels present in the word, then their codes will be written in the alphabetical order of vowels against their places (vowels are considered present in word only).

Codes of remaining letters will be written after the subtraction of their given codes from 7 as per the note.

If condition 1 and condition 2, both are applied together in the given order, then the code of remaining letter will be written as per note.

Q40. Find the code for ‘IMPETUS’.

1. &43%0#5
2. &34%7#2
3. %43&0#5
4. %34#7&2
5. &43#0%5

Q41. Find the code for ‘ZENITH’.

2&7%72
5%7%27
2&2%27
2&2%77
5%2%27

Q42. Find the code for ‘INTERPOLE’.

%77&14@2&
&20&23%2@
&24%23@2&
&27&24@7%
@72%&274@

Q43. Which of the following codes will fill the blank in ‘_$22@_1’ which is the code of ‘DAGLOCK’, respectively?

0, 5
7, 5
0, 6
7, 0
7, 2

Q44. Which of the following word is coded as ‘$2&#5’?

SLIDE
LEAVE
EQUAL
MOUNT
QUITE

Q45. Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:

Six persons go to market in different days of a week stating from Monday to Saturday. Three persons go between A and C. A goes on one of the days before C. E goes just after A. The number of persons go before E is same as the number of persons go after B. D goes after F. How many persons go before B?

One
Two
More than three
Three
None

Directions (46-47): In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark your answer as:

India needs higher investment in the port sector and still lags far behind international ports in container traffic, though there has been considerable growth in this segment over the past few years. There is a need to continually benchmark Indian ports against the best ports worldwide and continue to engage in policy efforts so as to attain prices per container of port services which are the lowest in the world. The average turn-around time for ships docking at most of the ports in India has been falling for the past three years. However, pre-berthing time has been marginally increasing over the years.

Q46. The best port in the world is located in the United States of America.

If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
If you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false;
If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given;

Q47. Indian ports have not been graded so far on the international standard.

If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
If you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false;
If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given;

Directions (48-50): Study the following information and answer the related questions: In a certain code language,

P@Q means P is husband of Q P#Q means P is mother of Q P^Q means P is father of Q P&Q means P is wife of Q P%Q means P is brother of Q P$Q means P is daughter of Q P+Q means P is son of Q

Q48. ‘D@C$E; S&E^Y#X; J@Y’, which of the following is true, if the given expression is true?

1. C is son of E
2. J is father of X
3. S is mother of Y
4. Y is brother of C
  1. Only I and III are true
  2. Only II, III and IV are true
  3. Only I and IV are true
  4. Only II and III are true
  5. Only II and IV are true

Q49. ‘Z$W^N+A; G@R#H&N’, in the given expression, how W is related to H?

Father-in-law
Brother
Uncle
Brother-in-law
Father

Q50. Which will in place of ‘?’ which will satisfy the relation that B is niece of Q?

F@U#B&M; L%V^U; Q?V

%
Either $ or +
$
^
&

Directions (51-57): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank each, four words are suggested. Following the words, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

Global warming is increasing, an _______(A)___________ phenomenon catalyzed by the _______(B)___________ accumulation of greenhouse gases in Earth’s atmosphere. This insidious _______(C)___________ precipitates a plethora of _______(D)___________ effects, paramount among them the exacerbation of climate change. The intricate interplay between anthropogenic activities and natural processes has engendered a scenario where the stability of global climate systems is under unprecedented threat.

At the heart of this _______(E) predicament lies the combustion of fossil fuels, a practice that

has become the linchpin of modern civilization. The _______(F)___________ release of carbon dioxide, methane, and other greenhouse gases has engendered a thickening of the atmospheric blanket, trapping heat and precipitating a global temperature uptick. This thermic augmentation is not merely a statistic; it is a _______(G) of a cascade of environmental calamities.

Q51. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank A?

1. Incontrovertible
2. Indecisive
3. Indubitable
4. moot
  1. Both (II) and (IV)
  2. Only (III)
  3. Both (I) and (III)
  4. Only (I)
  5. Both (I) and (II)

Q52. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank B?

- - 1. Pliant
    2. Spineless
    3. Relentless
    4. Pertinacious
      1. Both (II) and (III)
      2. Only (II)
      3. Both (I) and (III)
      4. Only (IV)
      5. Both (III) and (IV)

Q53. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank C?

Diminution

Escalation

Accretion

Constriction

Both (II) and (IV)

Only (IV)

Both (I) and (III)

Both (II) and (III)

Both (I) and (IV)

Q54. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank D?

Anodyne

Benignant

Deleterious

Innocuous

Both (II) and (III)

Only (III)

Both (I) and (II)

Only (IV)

Both (I) and (IV)

Q55. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank E?

(I) Dire

(II) Apocalyptic

(III) Propitious

(IV) Blithesome

(a) Both (I) and (II)

(b) Only (II)

(d) Only (III)

(e) Both (III) and (IV)

Q56. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank F?

(I) Ancillary

(II) Disparate

(III) Diacritical

(IV) Divisional

(a) Both (II) and (III)

(b) Only (II)

(d) Only (I)

(e) Both (III) and (IV)

Q57. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank G?

(I) Scion

(II) Harbinger

(III) Contraindication

(IV) Prelude

(a) Both (II) and (IV)

(b) Only (III)

(d) Only (IV)

(e) Both (I) and (III)

Directions (58-64): Read the following passage and answer the given questions based on it.

In a world dominated by digital advancements, Rohan, a seasoned software engineer with thirty years of experience, decided to embark on a transformative journey. Eager to contribute to his family’s legacy, he embarked on an agricultural journey alongside his brother. Together, they chose to cultivate millets, a crop that thrived in the village’s climate and offered resistance to pests, aligning perfectly with their aspirations for sustainable farming.

The village’s reliance on age-old farming tools and techniques posed a challenge for maximizing millet production. Recognizing the potential for modern technology to enhance agricultural efficiency, Rohan applied his engineering expertise to introduce innovative farming practices. His efforts were met with remarkable success, leading to a significant improvement in millet yields.

Rohan’s achievements extended beyond his own fields. He became a catalyst for change, sharing his newfound agricultural knowledge with fellow villagers. His initiative to incorporate technology in farming sparked a collective advancement in agricultural practices within the community.

Understanding the economic challenges faced by farmers due to intermediary exploitation, Rohan founded an agro-based company. This venture enabled direct transactions between farmers and the company, eliminating the need for middlemen and significantly increasing farmers’ profits by 30%.

The village, once known for its traditional farming, gained recognition for its prolific millet production and innovative agricultural practices under Rohan’s influence. His journey from a software engineer to a pioneering farmer exemplifies the power of blending technological innovation with traditional wisdom to foster community development and sustainability. Rohan’s story is a testament to the impactful change one individual can bring to agriculture, transforming his village into a beacon of progress.

Q58. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

Rohan initiated his agricultural venture with assistance from his father.
The choice to cultivate millets was driven by their higher market prices for farmers.
Millets exhibit resistance to pests.
Engaging in millet cultivation resulted in significant financial losses for the village’s farmers.
None of the above statements are correct.

Q59. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are CORRECT based on the passage?

1. Millets were chosen for their high market price and profitability.
2. Rohan applied his engineering expertise to overcome the challenges posed by traditional farming methods.
3. The introduction of innovative farming practices had no significant effect on the community’s agricultural practices.
  1. Only (I)
  2. Both (I) and (II)
  3. Only (II)
  4. Both (II) and (III)
  5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q60. Which statement(s) does NOT align with the details in the passage?

- - 1. Rohan’s decision to cultivate millets was primarily due to their ease of cultivation and low maintenance.
    2. The significant improvement in millet yields was attributed to Rohan’s engineering expertise and the adoption of innovative farming practices.
    3. Rohan’s venture into agriculture had little impact on the economic challenges faced by farmers in the village.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (II)
      3. Only (III)
      4. Both (I) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q61. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are CORRECT based on the passage?

Rohan relied on traditional wisdom to enhance agricultural practices in his village.

Direct sales facilitated by Rohan’s agro-based company significantly cut down the exploitation by intermediaries.

Rohan’s transition to agriculture was inspired by a desire to contribute to his family’s legacy.

Only (I)

Both (I) and (II)

Only (III)

Both (II) and (III)

All (I), (II), and (III)

Q62. How did Rohan’s agro-based company impact the farming community?

By providing advanced agricultural tools and resources that directly contributed to increased millet production.
Through facilitating educational workshops on innovative farming techniques, leading to widespread adoption among villagers.
By enabling sales channels between farmers and markets, thereby ensuring fairer prices for their produce.
Through the introduction of pest-resistant millet varieties, specifically engineered to thrive in the

village’s climate.

By cutting out intermediaries, which resulted in a substantial increase in the farmers’ profits.

Q63. Based on the passage, why did Rohan choose millets as the crop for his agricultural venture?

Millets were the most profitable crop in the market at the time.
He had extensive prior experience in cultivating millets.
Millets thrived in the village’s climate and offered resistance to pests.
The local government provided subsidies for millet cultivation.
Millets required less water compared to other crops, making them ideal for the village’s dry climate.

Q64. What was the primary challenge Rohan faced when he began his agricultural venture in the village?

A lack of interest from the village community in adopting new farming methods.
The village’s reliance on age-old farming tools and techniques that limited farming practices.
Difficulty in finding a suitable crop that could thrive in the local climate.
Resistance from local middlemen who were threatened by his innovative approaches.
The high cost of importing modern agricultural technology to the village.

Directions (65-71): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Germany’s economic vigor is surmised to have attenuated by 0.3% in the annum 2023, aligning with autumnal prognostications. An erosion in purchasing power egregiously impinged upon private consumer expenditures. Escalated expenditures pertinent to construction and borrowing, compounded by a paucity of labor and pronounced energy costs, have effectively hamstrung investments in the construction ambit and industries characterized by prodigious energy consumption.

Indices reflecting economic sentiment have remained in a state of torpor, with certain gauges in January descending to their lowest ebb since the COVID-19 pandemic’s advent, signaling an economic expansion that is, at best, tepid in the initial half of 2024. The trajectory of investment growth is poised to continue its lag behind pre-pandemic standards, beleaguered by a dismal investor outlook at the year’s outset. Labor shortages steadfastly remain a formidable barrier to economic activities, effectively squaring the circle in terms of reconciling growth aspirations with the reality of workforce constraints. The prospect of a trade-led revitalization appears tenuous, as exports and imports are anticipated to ascend at parallel magnitudes in the ensuing forecast intervals. More austere fiscal policies are poised to cast a pall over the near-term growth outlook. Contrariwise, a modicum of relief in market financing conditions has been noted, with anticipations of further easements through the conduit of bank lending. Moreover, the labor market’s robustness, alongside an increment in real wages, is slated to buttress private consumption across the forecasted horizon.

In sum, real GDP is envisaged to register an increment of 0.3% in 2024 and 1.2% in 2025. This signifies a downward revision from the 0.8% posited in the Autumn Forecast for 2024, whilst the outlook for 2025 remains steadfast.

HICP inflation witnessed a retrenchment from its zenith of 11.6% in October 2022 to 6.0% for the totality of 2023, and further to 3.1% in January 2024. This retraction is chiefly attributable to a regression in wholesale energy tariffs and the deployment of energy support mechanisms, which were phased out in November 2023. HICP inflation is forecasted to hit 2.8% in 2024 and 2.4% in 2025, in a manner that is broadly consonant with the Autumn Forecast. The inflationary trend across both years is anticipated to be predominantly driven by the services sector, where a provisional surge in wage growth is expected to perpetuate inflation at an elevated plateau, as was anticipated in the Autumn Forecast of 2023. By contrast, the contribution of energy price increments to inflation is expected to be only nominal in the ensuing period.

Q65. What factors are primarily responsible for the projected attenuation of Germany’s economic growth in 2023?

1. A reduction in consumer purchasing power due to economic conditions.
2. Increased costs associated with construction and borrowing activities.
3. Persistent labor shortages and elevated energy prices impacting industrial and construction investments.
  1. Only (I)
  2. Both (I) and (II)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Both (II) and (III)
  5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q66. What is the forecast for Germany’s real GDP growth for the years 2024 and 2025?

An increase to 0.8% in 2024 and 1.2% in 2025, showing an optimistic revision from previous forecasts.
A decrease to 0.3% in 2024 from the Autumn Forecast’s prediction of 0.8%, with a steady outlook of 1.2% for 2025.
A constant growth rate of 1.2% for both 2024 and 2025, matching previous forecasts exactly.
An unexpected surge to 2.8% in 2024, significantly higher than the Autumn Forecast, and a slight decrease to 2.4% in 2025.
A stabilization at 0.3% for 2024 and a decline to 1.2% in 2025, contrary to more optimistic earlier predictions.

Q67. How is the inflationary trend over 2024 and 2025 expected to be driven, according to the passage?

Primarily by the manufacturing sector, due to increased production costs.
By a significant increase in energy prices, contributing to higher overall inflation rates.
Predominantly by the services sector, with wage growth expected to maintain inflation at elevated levels.
Through decreased consumer spending, leading to lower demand and thus lower inflation.
By the agricultural sector, due to fluctuations in global commodity prices.

Q68. Evaluate the accuracy of these statements in light of the passage:

1. Real GDP growth for 2024 has been revised downwards from the Autumn Forecast.
2. HICP inflation is expected to remain constant at around 6% through 2024 and 2025.
3. Energy price increments are forecasted to be a major driver of inflation in the coming years.
  1. Only (I)
  2. Both (I) and (II)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Both (I) and (III)
  5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q69. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT based on the passage?

- - 1. Labor market robustness and increased real wages are expected to support private consumption.
    2. Exports and imports are projected to grow at differing rates, potentially disrupting trade balance.
    3. Fiscal austerity measures are likely to negatively influence near-term economic growth.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (II)
      3. Only (II)
      4. Both (II) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q70. What does the following sentence mean in the context of the passage?

“More austere fiscal policies are poised to cast a pall over the near-term growth outlook.”

Stricter budgetary measures are expected to improve economic growth prospects shortly.
The implementation of more rigid fiscal policies is likely to brighten the economic outlook in the near future.
Tighter government spending and taxation policies are anticipated to dampen economic growth in the short term.
Increased public investment and spending, as part of austere policies, will enhance the economic growth outlook.
Fiscal austerity measures will have no significant impact on the economic growth forecasts.

Q71. What does the phrase “squaring the circle” mean?

Finding a simple solution to a complex problem.
Making significant progress in a short amount of time.
Achieving something that is seemingly impossible or very difficult.
Balancing economic growth with environmental sustainability.
Increasing productivity without additional resources.

Q72. On a chilly afternoon, Ratul was toiling away in his office when a cold breeze wafted through the open window, prompting him to close it to maintain a cozy environment. Despite feeling somewhat lethargic that day, his spirits were unexpectedly lifted by a sudden phone call. The caller delivered the exhilarating news that Ratul had been shortlisted for the best performance award for his outstanding work on a recent project. Overwhelmed with happiness, Ratul found himself at a loss for words, unable to articulate the immense joy and surprise he felt at this unexpected recognition.

What the following word can most suitably expresses the feeling of Ratul?

Ecstatic
Despondent
Bewildered
Insouciant
Apathetic

Directions (73-75): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.

Q73.

1. He immediately set out on a journey to find it, overcoming various obstacles along the way.
2. Once upon a time, a young man heard a legend about a treasure hidden deep in the forest.
3. Finally, after days of searching, he discovered the treasure hidden under a giant old tree.
4. Intrigued by the story, he decided that he must discover this treasure for himself.
  1. CBDA
  2. CADB
  3. DBCA
  4. ABDC
  5. BDAC

Q74.

- - 1. This shift led to an increase in consumer spending and demand for goods, significantly boosting the economy.
    2. The government decided to implement a series of tax cuts and increased public spending to stimulate economic growth.
    3. As a result, businesses expanded their operations and hired more employees, further strengthening the economic recovery.
    4. Faced with a sluggish economy, policymakers were pressured to find a solution to spur growth and reduce unemployment.
      1. DBAC
      2. CDAB
      3. BADC
      4. ADCB
      5. ADBC

Q75.

The cat, grateful for the mouse’s kindness, decided to set the mouse free as a sign of gratitude.

Moved by the mouse’s plea, the cat released it, and they started to talk, realizing they shared many interests.

Lastly, they became unlikely friends, sharing stories and food, and looking out for each other in the forest.

One day, a cat caught a mouse who begged for its life, promising not to bother the cat again.

ACBD

DBAC

CBAD

ADBC

BADC

Directions (76-78): In the questions given below, three blanks are given. Below each question three words are given which fits the given blanks but not in the proper sequence. Choose the correct sequence of the words from the given five options.

Q76. The discovery of an old book in the attic _______ (I)_______ the mysteries of her ancestry,

_____(II)_______ a _____(III) web of lineage and intrigue.

complex

unraveled

revealing

(A), (B), (C)

(B), (A), (C)

(B), (C), (A)

(C), (B), (A)

(C), (A), (B)

Q77. The clandestine rendezvous under the _______(I)________ moonlight clandestinely

_______(II)________ their unspoken pact, weaving a _______(III) of allegiance veiled in secrecy.

(A) tapestry

(B) cemented

(a) (A), (B), (C)

(b) (B), (A), (C)

(d) (C), (B), (A)

(e) (C), (A), (B)

Q78. Amidst the _______(I)___________ of the _______(II)___________ metropolis, he found _______(III)_______ in the ephemeral beauty of a sunset, its fleeting hues a balm to his restless soul.

(A) cacophony

(B) bustling

(a) (A), (B), (C)

(b) (B), (A), (C)

(d) (C), (B), (A)

(e) (C), (A), (B)

Directions (79-80): In the following question, three sentences are given, each containing a highlighted word. Among the provided alternatives, select the word that serves as the most suitable synonym for the highlighted words.

Q79.

(A) A father, having faith in his son’s driving abilities, handed over the car keys to him.

(B) She entrusted her secret diary to her best friend; confident it would be safe with her.

(C) To ensure the project’s success, the team leader decided to delegate specific tasks to members based on their individual strengths and expertise.

(a) withhold

(b) possess

(d) retain

(e) trust

Q80.

(A) The weekend getaway to the tranquil mountains seemed to rejuvenate her spirit, leaving her feeling refreshed and ready to face the challenges ahead.

(B) The small community garden, nurtured by the collective efforts of the neighborhood, provided a

sustain source of fresh produce to local families.

impair
ruin
preserve
flaw

Q81. In the following question, three sentences are given, each containing a highlighted word. Among the provided alternatives, select the word that serves as the most suitable antonym for the highlighted words.

1. To pacify the crying child, her mother gently rocked her in her arms, humming a soft lullaby.
2. The lavish buffet spread was more than enough to satiate the guests’ hunger, leaving them content and full.
3. After a long hike on a hot summer day, the icy cold water from the mountain stream quenched their thirst perfectly.
  1. gladden
  2. indulge
  3. aggravate
  4. blandish
  5. console

Directions (82-84): In each question, one word is given in bold and correspondence to that, three sentences are given each containing that word. Choose the option depicts the sentence(s) that have/ has the correct usage of the word.

Q82. RIGHT

- - 1. Despite the intricate calculations, he decided to right his thesis on the quantum theory’s implications on temporal paradoxes.
    2. She exercised her right to vote, believing in the importance of contributing to the democratic process.
    3. He turned right at the corner, following the directions to reach the new bookstore downtown.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Only (II)
      3. Only (III)
      4. Both (I) and (II)
      5. Both (II) and (III)

Q83. QUERY

Upon encountering an error in the report, she sent a query to the IT department seeking clarification and assistance.

After reviewing the database, he formulated a complex SQL query to extract the specific information needed for the upcoming project presentation.

She submitted a query to the customer service team, hoping for a quick resolution to her issue with the online order.

Only (I)

Only (II)

Only (III)

All are correct

Both (I) and (III)

Q84. RELIANT

As technology advances, society becomes increasingly reliant on digital tools for daily tasks and communication.

He was reliant to believe that the weather would improve, despite the forecast predicting rain all week.

The remote village, reliant on solar panels for electricity, showcased the potential of sustainable energy in off-grid communities.

Only (I)

Both (I) and (III)

Only (III)

All are correct

Only (II)

Directions (85-86): In the questions given below, a sentence is given where the word has been emboldened. Below the sentence three words are given. Following the words, five options are given. Select the best alternatives for the bold word from the given options.

Q85. Given the dark clouds gathering in the sky, it’s likely that we’ll see rain before the afternoon is over.

(I) scarcely

(II) probably

(III) conceivably

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(d) Both (I) and (III)

(e) Both (I) and (II)

Q86. He enjoyed the movie, though he had already read the book and knew the ending.

(I) however

(II) hence

(III) nevertheless

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (II) and (III)

(d) Both (I) and (III)

(e) Both (I) and (II)

Directions (87-90): In the following questions, four sentences are provided and you are required to evaluate the grammatical correctness of each statement and select the corresponding option that accurately represents your evaluation.

Q87. (I) Despite the heavy rain, the event proceeded as planned, and many attendees appreciated the dedication shown.

Everyone in the classroom were eagerly waiting for the announcement that the school year was finally over.
The committee decided that the proposal, while innovative, did not align with the organization’s current priorities.
Having lost the game, the team’s spirits were low, but its coach’s encouraging words lifted there mood significantly.
1. Only (I) is correct
2. Both (III) and (IV) are incorrect
3. Both (II) and (IV) are incorrect
4. Both (I) and (IV) are correct
5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Q88. (I) As the deadline approaches, the team worked tirelessly to ensure the project’s completion on time, despite facing numerous challenges.

The recent study reveals that, despite common belief, eating chocolate in moderation can have benefits for heart health.
Each of the participants have their own unique perspective, which they will share during the discussion panel next week.
The novel’s intricate plot, combined with the author’s attention to detail, makes it a compelling read for enthusiasts of the genre.
1. Only (I) is incorrect
2. Both (I) and (IV) are incorrect
3. Both (II) and (IV) are correct
4. Both (I) and (III) are correct
5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Q89. (I) In an effort to reduce waste, the city council announced that it will be implementing a new recycling program next month.

The teacher, along with her students, are planning a field trip to the museum to enhance their understanding of history.
Not only does the new policy aim to increase efficiency, but it also seeks to improve the overall customer experience.
Despite his initial reservations, he found that the course offered valuable insights over the subject, exceeding his expectations.
1. Only (III) is incorrect
2. Both (I) and (IV) are incorrect
3. Both (II) and (IV) are correct
4. Both (I) and (III) are correct
5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Q90.

- 1. The research team was surprised to find that their results contradicted previous studies, leading them to further investigate the anomaly.
  2. Among the many challenges faced by the committee was finding a consensus on the proposed budget, which proved to be more difficult than anticipated.
  3. The number of participants attending the conference exceed the organizers’ expectations, which necessitated additional preparations.
  4. Following the seminar, feedback from attendees were overwhelmingly positive, indicating the event’s success in meeting its objectives.
    1. Both (III) and (IV) are incorrect
    2. Both (I) and (IV) are incorrect
    3. Both (II) and (IV) are correct
    4. Both (I) and (III) are correct
    5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Directions (91-95): The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of total people (males and females) visited to a mall in five different days of a week (Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday & Thursday). Read the information carefully and answer the following questions.

Note: (i) The difference between total people visited the mall on Sunday and Tuesday is 12.

(ii) Total 400 people visited the mall on all five days.

Q91. On Monday, the ratio of males to females visiting the mall was 2:3. If the number of females visiting the mall increased by 25% and the total number of people visiting on Monday remained the same, then the number of males after females is increased are what percentage of total people visited the mall on Tuesday.

32.5%
16.67%
8.33%
33.33%
65%

Q92. On Wednesday, 30 people watch movie and remaining went to food court in the mall. If females went to food court is equal to total people went to the movie and total male went to food court is 12 more than that of total male went to the movie, then find the ratio of total females went to movie on Wednesday to total people went to mall on Thursday.

3:1
1:3
2:7
7:9
1:12

Q93. Total males visited to mall on Sunday and Thursday are same and ratio of females visited on Sunday to Thursday is Find sum total males in both the given days.

Q94. Ratio of the total people visited to mall on Saturday to on Monday and Tuesday together is 1:2 and males visited on Saturday is 25% more than that total people visited to mall on Sunday. The females visited mall on Saturday is what percentage of the total people visited the mall in all given days.

3.6%
1.8%
2.5%
7.5%
6.5%

Q95. Find the difference between maximum and minimum number of people visited to the mall in the given days.

Q96. Solve the given two equation (I) and equation (II) and from the roots of these equation find which of the new equation formed.

(I): x2 – 10x + 21 = 0

(II): y2 – 24y + 144 = 0

For making equation one root is taking from (I) and other root taken from (II)

1. z2 – 19z + 84 = 0
2. z2 – 19z + 36 = 0
3. z2 – 13z + 36 = 0
4. z2 – 19z + 30 = 0
5. z2 – 15z + 84 = 0

Directions (97-98): Solve the quadratic equation given below and answer the question based on these equations.

- 1. 2×2 – Px + 10 = 0
  2. 4y2 – Ry + 15 = 0

Note: (i) Roots of the equation (I) are (A) and (B) whose sum is 4.5

(ii) Roots of the equation (II) are C and D. Smallest root (C) of the equation (II) is ½ of the smallest root

(A) of the equation (I)

Q97. Find the sum of the B and D.

6.75
7.75
6.25
4.25
8.25

Q98. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

1. A + 1.75 = D
2. B + 1.25 = D
3. D – C = B + 0.25
  1. Both (I) and (II)
  2. Only (I)
  3. Only (III)
  4. All (I), (II) & (III)
  5. None of these

Directions (99-100). One number is wrong, and one number is missing in the given number series. Solve the number series and answer the questions given below.

- - 1. 0.5, 5, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, P

Q99. Find the wrong number of the series.

- - - 1. 5
      2. 60
      3. 480
      4. 2880
      5. 0.5

Q100. If the wrong number of the series is A, then find which of the statement/s is/are correct.

P – 2880 = 4032A

P is completely divisible by A

P>4320A

Both (I) and (II)

Only (I)

Only (III)

All (I), (II) & (III)

None of these

Q101. Anvi and Vaishnav started a business with the investment of Rs. 4800 and Rs. P respectively. After 6 months and 4 days Anvi left the business and Vaishnav invested Rs. 300 more. After 2 months and 3 days from the time at which Anvi left, Madhu joined the business by invested half of the amount invested by Vaishnav. If the annual profit is Rs. 1600 and the share of Madhu is Rs. 200. Find the approximate value of P.

Rs. 15300
Rs. 16000
Rs. 70000
Rs. 75000
Rs. 65000

Q102. A boat covers 1.5S km downstream in 15 hours. A boy covered S km in 5 hours and the speed of the boy is 11 km/hr more than the speed of boat in still water. If the speed of stream is 3 km/hr, then find the value of S.

Q103. If and B + C = 12, Also 14≥A>B>9 and 10≥B>C>1. (Note: A, B and C are the integers)

Quantity (I) Value of A + 5

Quantity (II) Value of 2C + B

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q104. A person invested Rs. P in a scheme that offers 19.8% interest, which is compounded annually for two years and two days. If the amount received from this scheme is reinvested at the same rate for the same period of time in the same scheme, then he will receive Rs. 792 as interest. Find the approximate value of P.

2500
1250
1450
1320
1000

Q105. A train crossed a poll in t seconds and the train crossed a platform in (t + 12) seconds. If the sum of length of platform and the train 540 meters. If the length of train is 300 meters, then find the distance covered by the train in (t – 6) seconds.

280 meters
240 meters
250 meters
160 meters
180 meters

Q106. X and Y are two numbers, and XY = 40. If we add one to numbers X and Y each, then both numbers form a single digit. Find the product of X and Y after adding one to both numbers. (Both X and Y are integers.)

54
64
42
49
None of these.

Directions (107-108): Find the pattern of the series and answer the questions given below. Series I. a, d, c, 669, 833, 1017, 1221

Series II. b, b+18, 336, 354, 372, 390

Series III. 456, 472, 408, 552, z

Q107. Which of the following option is correct.

a+d – c > z
a+d – c < z
a+d = b + z + 102
(a) and (c) both are correct.
(b) and (c) both are correct.

Q108. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect.

1. d is a prime number.
2. a and z both are an odd number.
3. c is divided by 7, then the quotient is 1/4 of b.
  1. Only (B)
  2. Both (B) and (C)
  3. Both (C) & (A)
  4. Only (C)
  5. Both (A) & (B)

Directions (109-112): Find the approximate value of question mark (?) in the following questions.

Q109. 1259.909 ÷ 12.106 ÷ 6.979 + 37.8982 – 29.9023 = ?

Q110.

Q111.

Q112. ? ×(44.01 % of 750.01 + 110.01) = 87.99% of 2499.98

Directions (113-117): Read the information and answer the following questions.

There are four products A, B, C & D.

Each B and D was marked up by 50% above its cost price.
The ratio of marked price of B to C is 6:7 and selling price of A is half of the marked price of B. The sum of the marked price of C and D is Rs 810.
D sold at 10% discount and rest of the products sold at a discount of 15%.

Q113. If total profit percent earned after selling product B is M%, then find the value of M.

1. 27.5
2. 14.5
3. 14.8
4. 24.7
5. 30.75

Q114. If product A is sold at a profit of 53% and difference between cost price and marked price is Rs 80, then find the selling price of product B (in Rs).

244.1
242.3
245
260.1
300.1

Q115. The sum of marked price of products B and C is Rs 1326 and cost price of product C is Rs142 more than that of product B, then find the cost price of product C is how much more or less than that of product D (In Rs).

Q116. If the sum of marked price of product D and cost price of product B is Rs 733.5, then find the selling price of product D is approximately what percentage that of product A.

144%
842%
735%
727%
743%

Q117. If sum of the discount percentages given on products A and D is equal to the total profit percentage of product C, then find the marked-up percentage (approx.) of product C.

Q118. An article is marked up by Rs 1225 above its cost price which is ‘x’. It sold at a discount of 0.27x and the profit earned by the shopkeeper is 8%.

Quantity I: Find the value of Rs (x – 2500).

Quantity II: If cost price of the article is increase by 14.28% and sell at a profit of 25%, then find the profit (in Rs).

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q119.

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q120. Find the pattern of the given series and answer the question given below.

Directions (121-125): Bar graph given below shows the number of total inbound calls (domestic and international) and outbound calls (domestic and international) made by six people (A, B, C, D, E, and F). The table shows the ratio of Inbound and Outbound calls made by these people. Read the information and answer the following questions.

Q121. For B, outbound domestic calls is 0.75 times than that of inbound and outbound international calls are 5/6 that of inbound. If the ratio of total outbound call to inbound calls is 4:5, then find the total international calls.

Q122. If the difference between inbound and outbound calls made by F is 16, then find the value of a.

Q123. If the outbound calls by B is 20% more than that of C, then the inbound calls by B is what percentage of total calls made by E.

Q124. If total inbound domestic calls by C and D is equal to outbound calls by E and total international calls made by C and D is 44, then find the total domestic outbound calls made them.

Q125. If number of inbound international and outbound international calls made by A is square of a positive integer, then find the difference between minimum number of domestic call (inbound and outbound) made by A. (Note: inbound international and outbound international calls made by A are not equal)

Directions (126-130): The table shows the number of articles (A, B, C & D) sold, cost price of each article, mark up percentage and total discount given. Read the information and answer the following questions.

Note- (i) Selling price of article A is one third of the selling price of article C.

(ii) Selling price of article B is double than the selling price of article D.

Q126. If the marked price of total article A is Rs 3000 and 60% of article are not sold then find the total number of article A (sold + unsold). (Note: x is a multiple of 5 and less than 30)

Q127. If the selling price of each article A is Rs 5 more than the cost price of each article A and sum of the profit earned on an article A and an article C is Rs 30, then which of the following option/ (s) is/are correct.

1. 3x – y = 15
2. Discount given on each article A is Rs.5.
  1. (A) and (B) both are correct
  2. Only (A) correct
  3. Only (B) correct
  4. (A) correct and (B) incorrect
  5. (A) incorrect and (B) correct

Q128. Discount given on each article C is Rs15 less than the cost price of each article D. Find the total articles B and C sold.

Q129. If the discount given on each article B is Rs 15, then find the marked price of each article B is what percentage of total discount given on article A.

Q130. Find the ratio between the total discount given on article D to discount given on each article A.

300:1
1:300
200:7
7:900
11:102

Directions (131-133): The following questions are accompanied by two statements i.e. statement

(I) and statement (II). You have to determine which statement (s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

Q131. Vessel A contains the mixture of milk and water. Find the quantity of milk in the initial solution.

Statement (I): When we extract 25 liters of mixture from the vessel for three times then the vessel gets empty.

Statement (II): When 15 liters of mixture is replaced by pure milk for the two times, then the ratio of milk to water in the final mixture becomes 17: 8

1. Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
2. Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3. Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
4. Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5. Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q132. The marked price of articles P is 33 ⅓% more than the marked price of Q. Article P is mark up by above its cost price and allowed 50% of a discount on article Q. What is the cost price of P (in Rs)?

Statement I: On article Q seller makes a profit of 20%.

Statement II: Difference between the cost price of P and selling price of Q is Rs. 200

Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q133. Find the sum of the ages of P and D two years ago.

Statement (I): Present age of P is twice the present age of Q and the ratio of the present age of R and Q is 3: 1 respectively.

Statement (II): Ratio of the present ages of A to D is 3: 5 and the age of A and R is same.

Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q134. A and B spent 40% of their monthly salary each and saved the rest of the salary. A saved Rs. 6000 and out of the total expenditure, A and B spent 20% and 30% on food and invested the remaining amount in SIP. If the monthly amount invested in the SIP by B is Rs. 1980 more than that of A, then find the difference in the salary of A and B (in Rs).

7000
8200
8400
8500
7500

Q135. A bag contains certain number of pebbles of three different colors (Red, Blue and Green). Number of Red pebbles are 5 and the number of blue pebbles is 6. If the probability of picking a pebble from the bag and pebble comes out to be of green color is 7/18. Find the probability of picking two pebbles and one pebbles comes out to be of Blue and other is of Red.

3/5
10/51
11/51
9/53
10/53

Q136. Total surface area of the cuboid is 76 cm2.

Quantity (I): Ratio of the length and the height of the cuboid is 5: 2 and the breadth is double of the height. Find the cost of painting the floor of the cuboid at the cost of Rs. 20/cm2.

Quantity (II): Perimeter of the equilateral triangle formed on the floor of the cuboid is 12 cm. Find the cost of painting triangular part at the cost of Rs 30/cm2 .

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q137. The vessel contains 60 liters of a mixture that contains 80% milk and the rest is water. Firstly, 20 liters of mixture are replaced by water, and then, 15 liters of mixture are removed from the resultant mixture. If x liters of water are added to the remaining mixture, then the ratio of milk to water becomes equal in the final mixture. Find the value of x.

Q138. Ratio of time taken to cover P km in downstream to the time taken to cover km in upstream is 5:12 and the ratio of speed of boat in downstream to boat in still water is 8: 5. If the difference between the time taken by the boat to travel (P-6) km in upstream to that in downstream is 6 hr., then find the distance covered by the boat in still water in 5 hours?

32.5 km
31.5 km
47.5 km
37.5 km
27.5 km

Q139. The average earning of a group of eight persons is Rs 25 per day. The difference between the person having highest earning and lowest earning in the group is Rs 45. If person having highest and lowest earning are excluded, then the average earning of the group decreased by Rs

2.5. Find the average earning of the group when the three persons whose sum of earnings are equal to the person having highest earning left the group?

Rs 29
Rs 28.5
Rs 30
Rs 29.5
Rs 30.5

Q140. 15 boy and 12 girls together can complete a work in ‘a’ days while 5 boys and 22 girls can complete the same work in ‘c’ days. Ratio of efficiency of a boy to a girl is 2: 5. Find the possible value/s of a + c where a and c are positive integers.

1. 18
2. 8
3. 28
4. 14
5. 21
  1. Both I and II follows
  2. I, II and III follows
  3. II, III and IV follows
  4. I, III and V follows
  5. III, IV and V follows

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