IBPS PO Pre 2025 Question Paper – Shift 1

Directions (1-3): Read the given instructions carefully and answer the related questions:

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north.

Three persons sit between A and B. C sits second to the right of B. D sits fifth to the left of C. Two persons sit between D and E. The number of persons sit between D and C is one more than the number of persons sit between D and F. No one sits to the left of F. The position of A with respect to F is same as the position of C with respect to G. As many persons sit to the left of F as to the right of C.

Q1. How many persons sit between E and G?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four
  5. More than four

Q2. Who among the following sits third to the left of G?

  1. B
  2. E
  3. A
  4. C
  5. D

Q3. How many persons sit in the row?

  1. 9
  2. 13
  3. 12
  4. None of the given options
  5. 10

Q4. How many meaningful words can be formed from the 3rd, 5th, 8th and 12th letter from the left end of the word FERMENTATION. If no word is formed, then mark the answer as @ and if more than three words are formed, then mark the answer as #, else choose the correct answer from given options?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. #
  5. @

Q5. How many pair of digits can be formed in the number 73915243, which have same number of digits between then as in the number series (both forward and backward direction)?

  1. None
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. More than three
  5. One

Directions (6-8): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are members of a three-generation family, with no single parent. G is the daughter-in-law of D. B has no daughter. H is the aunt of A. G is the sister-in-law of C. C is married member of the family. B is the grandfather of A. C and A are of opposite gender. E is the brother of F and has no child.

Q6. How is G related to E?

  1. Wife
  2. Sister
  3. Sister-in-law
  4. Mother
  5. Can’t be determined

Q7. How many male members are there in the family?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Five
  4. Four
  5. None of these

Q8. Who among the following is the mother of E?

  1. H
  2. A
  3. D
  4. C
  5. Can’t be determined

Directions (9-11): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

  1. If only conclusion I is true
  2. If only conclusion II is true
  3. If either conclusion I or II is true
  4. If both conclusions I and II are true
  5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q9. Statements: O > S = G ≤ R ≥ K; L ≤ R =P; T < J = P

Conclusions:

    1. S < L
    2. J ≥ G

Q10. Statements: Q ≤ M > D > E = T; F = G ≥ H < C < T ≥ A

Conclusions:

  1. A ≤ M
  2. F > Q

Q11. Statements: Z = X < Y > O ≤ W, P ≥ Q = R < S > W

Conclusions:

  1. X > R
  2. Z ≤ Q

Directions (12-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F – were born in different months – April, July, and September – on two different dates, i.e., 9th and 26th of the same year. Each person likes a different colour – Red, Blue, Pink, Green, White, and Yellow. All the information is not necessarily used in the same order

Two persons were born between F and the person who likes red. D was born immediately before F on an odd date and in the month having even number of days. The one who likes pink was born two persons before C. E was born immediately before C on an even date. Two persons were born between the ones who like pink and blue. A was born before the one who likes green and two persons after the one who likes yellow. E doesn’t like yellow.

Q12. Who among the following was born on 9th July?

    1. C
    2. The one who likes green color
    3. F
    4. The one who likes pink color
    5. D

Q13. Which among the following pairs is correct?

  1. B – Green, 26th September
  2. C – Red, 26th July
  3. F – White, 26th April
  4. E – Green, 26th April
  5. D – Yellow, 9th September

Q14. How many persons were born between F and the one who likes blue color?

  1. Four
  2. Two
  3. One
  4. None
  5. Three

Q15. Who among the following likes white color?

  1. The one who was born four persons before B
  2. C
  3. A
  4. The one who was born on 26th September

Q16. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

    1. C was born before D.
    2. No person was born between F and the one who likes pink color.
    3. E was born in the month having odd number of days and likes green color.
      1. Both II and III
      2. Only I
      3. Both I and III
      4. Only III
      5. All I, II and III

Directions (17-21): Read the given instructions carefully and answer the related questions:

Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F – bought six different types of cars – Sedan, SUV, Hatchback, Limousine, Coupe, and Convertible – one after the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

The one who bought Sedan purchased it three persons before F. As many persons bought car before F as after the one who purchased Hatchback. Two persons bought cars between the ones who purchased Hatchback and SUV. E bought the car before the one who purchased SUV but immediately before A. Coupe was bought two persons after A but immediately bought before convertible. Convertible was bought before B but after D.

Q17. Who among the following bought the Limousine?

  1. E
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. A

Q18. Who bought the car three persons after that person who bought the car immediately before D?

  1. C
  2. B
  3. F
  4. A
  5. None of these

Q19. If A is related to Hatchback and in the same way E is related to limousine then, C is related to which type of car?

  1. Coupe
  2. Convertible
  3. SUV
  4. Sedan

Q20. The number of cars bought between E and the one who purchased Hatchback is one more than the number of cars bought after the one who purchased _.

  1. Convertible
  2. SUV
  3. Coupe
  4. Limousine
  5. Sedan

Q21. Sedan was purchased by who among the following person?

  1. A
  2. D
  3. E
  4. F
  5. C

Directions (22-24): In this question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

  1. If only conclusion I follows
  2. If only conclusion II follows
  3. If either conclusion I or II follows
  4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
  5. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q22. Statements:

Only a few club is court Some court is allow

No allow is revenue

Conclusions:

    1. Some club being allow is a possibility
    2. Some court are not revenue.

Q23. Statements:

Only a few Edition is investors All investors are verdict.

No verdict is affect

Conclusions:

  1. No edition is affect
  2. All investors being affect is a possibility

Q24. Statements:

All skipper is win Some win is player

Only a few player is hear

Conclusions:

  1. All skipper being hear is a possibility
  2. No win is hear

Q25. Find the odd one out?

    1. JLMP
    2. ACDG
    3. EGHK
    4. LNOR
    5. QSTU

Directions (26-30): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born on seven different years i.e., 1947, 1959, 1964, 1973, 1978, 1988 and 2001 on the same month and same date. (Base year is considered as 2025 for age calculation). The sum of the ages of C and F is equal to the age of D. G’s age is divisible by 6. The total age of A and G is a prime number. A is just older than F. The sum of the age of B and A is divisible by 5.

Q26. Who among the following was born on 1973?

  1. G
  2. B
  3. E
  4. A
  5. C

Q27. How many persons were born between A and B?

  1. Two
  2. More than four
  3. Four
  4. One
  5. Three

Q28. What is the difference between the age of C and D?

  1. 12 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 24 years
  4. 37years
  5. 38 years

Q29. Who among the following is the oldest person?

  1. E
  2. B
  3. G
  4. D
  5. None of these

Q30. What is the age of G?

  1. 37 years
  2. 24 years
  3. 47 years
  4. 52 years
  5. 66 years

Directions (31-35): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below: Fourteen persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing seven persons each. In row 1 – A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seated and all of them are facing north. While P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in row-2 and facing south direction but not necessarily in the same order. Persons of row 1 face the persons of row 2. Q sits two places away from the one who faces E. E is the only immediate neighbour of D. U faces the one who sits third to the right of C. The number of persons sit to the right of Q is same as the number of persons sit to the left of G. B sits second to the left of G. One person sits between R and V and both of them do not sit at the extreme ends. S sits right of T but not sit at the extreme ends. A faces the one who sits second to the right of R.

Q31. Who among the following faces R?

  1. G
  2. D
  3. B
  4. C
  5. A

Q32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

  1. Two persons sit between G and A
  2. U faces E
  3. V sits left of R
  4. C doesn’t sit at extreme ends
  5. All are true

Q33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

  1. T
  2. F
  3. S
  4. U
  5. G

Q34. How many persons sit to the left of the one who faces S?

  1. Two
  2. More than four
  3. Four
  4. One
  5. Three

Q35. Who among the following sits second to the right of the one who faces F?

  1. V
  2. T
  3. R
  4. Q
  5. None of these

Directions (36-44): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

The concept of cloud kitchens, also known as virtual or ghost kitchens, has become one of the fastest- growing trends in the food industry. Unlike traditional restaurants, cloud kitchens operate without a dine-in facility, focusing entirely on online orders and delivery services. This model has gained momentum due to changing consumer habits, technological integration, and the growing demand for convenience.

One of the most significant economic advantages of cloud kitchens is cost efficiency. By eliminating the expenses of prime-location rentals, heavy de´cor, and customer service staff, businesses can focus resources on food quality, marketing, and delivery logistics. For many entrepreneurs, launching a restaurant earlier seemed like an elusive dream, but cloud kitchens have made it possible with lower investment and quicker setup.

The global growth of cloud kitchens is impressive. In Britain, the industry witnessed a dramatic transformation in 2023, expanding nearly threefold compared to previous years. Much of this growth has been driven by the popularity of food delivery apps where customers need to tap once on their screens to get a meal delivered. Similarly, the United States has set an ambitious target, aiming to generate around $27 billion from cloud kitchen operations between 2027 and 2032. Such projections underline the crucial role cloud kitchens will play in the food economy of the future.

Beyond profits, cloud kitchens contribute positively to the overall economy by creating jobs in cooking, packaging, logistics, and technology support. They also encourage collaborations with delivery platforms and boost allied sectors like packaging manufacturing and food supply chains. Much of this work is quietly done , yet it strengthens multiple layers of the economy.

However, this rapid growth has raised concerns. While governments have issued regulations concerning hygiene, licensing, and safety standards, many restaurants operating as cloud kitchens fail to comply strictly with these rules. The lack of regular inspections and the rush to meet demand often lead to corners being cut, raising questions about consumer safety and long-term sustainability.

In conclusion, cloud kitchens represent a transformative shift in the food and service industry. They are cost-effective, scalable, and job-generating, making them vital for economic growth. Yet, their true potential will only be realized when strict adherence to regulations ensures that quality and safety are never compromised.

Q36. What is the underlying reason cloud kitchens have enabled more entrepreneurs to enter the food business?

  1. The emergence of global food trends requiring innovative business models.
  2. The increase in food delivery app usage that encourages mass entry.
  3. The substantial decrease in start-up and operational costs associated with running a food business.
  4. The ability to access a wider consumer base without geographical limitations.
  5. The availability of shared kitchen infrastructure and government subsidies in urban areas.

Q37. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT according to the passage?

    1. Technological tools and mobile apps have played a significant role in the adoption of cloud kitchens.
    2. Britain experienced a stagnant cloud kitchen market until 2023.
    3. Many cloud kitchens fail to comply with food safety rules due to operational urgency.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (III)
      3. Only (II)
      4. Both (II) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q38. Which of the following situations best explains the concern highlighted in the passage?

  1. A cloud kitchen receives a five-star rating for speedy delivery despite complaints about poor food quality.
  2. A traditional restaurant installs a robot chef to improve efficiency and reduce labor costs.
  3. A local food vendor switches to cloud kitchen services and increases profits.
  4. A delivery app offers discounts to promote lesser-known cloud kitchens.
  5. A food safety authority mandates regular inspections for dine-in restaurants only.

Q39. What does the passage say about cloud kitchens in Britain?

  1. They were banned in 2023 due to safety issues.
  2. They grew three times larger in 2023 compared to earlier years.
  3. They replaced all traditional restaurants by 2023.
  4. They focused only on packaging and delivery.
  5. They were introduced for the first time in 2023.

Q40. Which of the following statements is/are factually INCORRECT based on the passage?

    1. The global rise of cloud kitchens has had little to no impact on auxiliary sectors such as food supply chains and packaging.
    2. In the United States, cloud kitchens are projected to contribute nearly $27 billion to the economy by the year 2027 alone.
    3. One of the key reasons behind the proliferation of cloud kitchens is the substantial reduction in fixed operational costs.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (II)
      3. Only (III)
      4. Both (I) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q41. Choose the most suitable phrase for the given blank.

  1. in broad daylight
  2. without permission
  3. on live television
  4. behind the scenes
  5. under pressure

Q42. Choose the word that is grammatically and contextually most suitable to replace "elusive" as used in the passage:

  1. Obvious
  2. Achievable
  3. Unattainable
  4. Defining
  5. Difficult

Q43. What is the closest meaning of the word “done” as used in the passage?

  1. Completed
  2. Final
  3. Avoided
  4. Attained
  5. Repeated

Q44. What is the most appropriate meaning of the word “tap” as used in this context?

  1. Strike
  2. Click
  3. Extract
  4. Control
  5. Attach

Directions (45-49): The following question contains a sentence with a blank. Choose the most appropriate word or phrase from the given options that can most suitably replace the blank in the sentence.

Q45. The dentist had to the decayed tooth to prevent further infection.

  1. modify
  2. excuse
  3. recruit
  4. amplify
  5. remove

Q46. The new technology promises to the way we perform everyday tasks.

  1. impede
  2. acclaim
  3. stagnate
  4. deteriorate
  5. augment

Q47. The athlete’s rigorous training and unwavering determination _________________ to their remarkable success.

  1. contributed
  2. detracted
  3. underestimated
  4. isolated
  5. impeded

Q48. The new regulations aim to fair competition among all market participants.

  1. infringe
  2. enforce
  3. relinquish
  4. constrain
  5. fragment

Q49. The exam rules must be followed to ensure fairness for all students.

  1. scarcely
  2. preciously
  3. strictly
  4. hardly
  5. mostly

Directions (50-54): Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph.

    1. Many people now prefer taking extended vacations to unwind and reconnect with themselves.
    2. Travel has increasingly become a way not just to see new places but to momentarily escape the pressures of daily routines.
    3. In today’s fast-paced world, hectic schedules and constant digital connectivity often leave individuals drained.
    4. Meeting new people, exploring unfamiliar cultures, and disconnecting from work helps rejuvenate the mind.
    5. This shift in travel behavior reflects a growing awareness about mental well-being and the need for intentional breaks.

Q50. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q51. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q52. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q53. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q54. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

Directions (55-58): In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted. These four words are may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other.

Q55. Be careful (A) not to microwave (B) the hot plate (C) when you take the food out of the catch (D).

  1. A-B
  2. B-C & A-D
  3. A-B & C-D
  4. B-D
  5. No interchange required

Q56. India is system (A) digitising its healthcare rapidly (B), and artificial intelligence (AI) offers a huge transformation (C) to super-charge this opportunity (D).

  1. A-B and C-D
  2. B-C
  3. A-C and B-D
  4. B-D
  5. No interchange required

Q57. Astronomical (A) temperatures (B) are usually estimated from spectroscopic (C) measurements (D).

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. A-C
  4. B-D
  5. No interchange required

Q58. Growing (A) children in involving (B) and nurturing a few plants at home can open (C) up the

magical (D) world of nature and science to them

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. A-C and B-D
  4. B-D
  5. No interchange required

Q59. Match the parts of sentences given in Column I and Column II to form meaningful and grammatically correct complete sentences. Choose the option that contains all the correct combinations.

COLUMN I

COLUMN II

A. The new cybersecurity policy mandates

organizations

D. to support the growing number of EV

users nationwide

B. Electric vehicle manufacturers are

expanding their charging networks

E. to perform complex surgeries with

minimal invasion

C. Rising sea levels and erratic weather

patterns

F. that are currently beyond the scope of

classical computers

  1. None of these
  2. A-F
  3. B-D
  4. A-E, B-F
  5. A-F, B-D, C-E

Q60. A phrase has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the phrase has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner. DARK HORSE

    1. Nobody expected her to win the competition, but she turned out to be the dark horse of the event.
    2. The painter was a dark horse, known by few but admired once his work was revealed.
    3. The farmer bought a dark horse and a white cow from the village market.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Only (II)
      3. Both (I) and (II)
      4. All of these
      5. Both (II) and (III)

Directions (61-65): The sentence is divided into four segments: (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If the sentence is both grammatically and contextually correct, select “No error” as the correct answer.

Q61. The Prime Minister promised (A)/ to improving infrastructure (B)/ in rural districts by allocating (C)/ additional funds in the next budget. (D)

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No error

Q62. She enjoys hiking in the mountains, (A)/ swimming in the lake, (B)/ and to explore ancient ruins (C)/ during her travels abroad. (D)

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No error

Q63. The orchestra have (A)/ started rehearsing (B)/ for the upcoming international music festival (C)/ scheduled in Vienna next month. (D)

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No error

Q64. A unexpected spike in volcano activity (A)/ has forced authorities to evacuate (B)/ nearby villages as a safety (C)/ measure to prevent casualties. (D)

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No error

Q65. The ambassador (A)/ said the reports have (B)/ being examined carefully by his staff (C)/ before making any comment. (D)

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No error

Directions (66-69): In each question two equations number (I) and (II) are given. You should solve both the equations and mark appropriate answer.

  1. If x=y or no relation can be established
  2. If x>y
  3. If x<y
  4. If x≥y
  5. If x≤y

Q66. I. x2 – 10x+24 = 0

II. 5y2 – 16y + 12 = 0

Q67. I. 2×2 – 9x +10 = 0

II. y2 – 12y+ 35 = 0

Q68. I. 6×2 – 7x + 2 = 0

II. 10y2 – 11y + 3 =0

Q69. I. 2×2 + 19x + 42 = 0

II. 2y2 + 7y + 5 = 0

Directions (70-73): What approximate value come in the place of ‘x’ in the following questions.

Q70. 779.23 + 4.98 + 23 = x% of 60.03

13

  1. 187
  2. 121
  3. 169
  4. 147
  5. 177

Q71. 39.98% of 249.99 + √196.04 = x2 + 55.93

  1. 6
  2. 9
  3. 5
  4. 8
  5. 4

Q72. 20.992 − 24.97% 𝑜𝑓 220.02−? = 131.13

  1. 225
  2. 125
  3. 255
  4. 145
  5. 290

Q73. 24.212 + 12.16 =?× (49.99% 𝑜𝑓 55.98)

  1. 25
  2. 29
  3. 21
  4. 17
  5. 33

Directions (74-79): The table given below shows the total number of red and blue balls in five different bags (A, B, C, D & E). it also shows the difference between red and blue balls and percentage of red balls with respect to total balls.

Total

bags

Difference between red and blue

balls

Percentage of red ball with respect to total

balls

A

60

62.5%

B

198

66.5%

C

188

70%

D

76

60%

E

330

72%

Q74. The number of Red ball in A and E together is what percentage of number of blue balls in A and E together.

  1. 230
  2. 220
  3. 240
  4. 280
  5. 260

Q75. The sum of number of blue balls in B and number of red balls in C are how many less than number of red balls in E.

  1. 55
  2. 53
  3. 50
  4. 58
  5. 56

Q76. Find the ratio of number of red balls in A and E together to number of blue balls in A.

  1. 23:10
  2. 23:11
  3. 23:3
  4. 18:19
  5. 21:22

Q77. Find the average number of red balls in B, D and E.

  1. 355
  2. 353
  3. 350
  4. 389
  5. 386

Q78. The number of balls in bag F is 25% more than red balls in E and the ratio of red balls in A and blue balls in F is 2:1. Find the red balls in F.

  1. 685
  2. 680
  3. 630
  4. 620
  5. 600

Q79. If 20% of total balls in A taken out and put into bag C and number of red balls in C become

400. Find the blue balls taken out from bag A.

  1. 40
  2. 50
  3. 20
  4. 30
  5. 55

Directions (80-85): The line graph given below shows the total number of TV sold and difference between cell phone and TV sold by five different shops (A, B, C, D and E).

Difference between Cellphone and TV sold

E

D

C

B

A

Total TV sold

0

200

400

600

800

Note – Total cell phones sold by all the shops are more than the total TV sold. Items = cell phone + TV

Q80. Total item sold by E is what percentage more/less than total TV sold by D.

  1. 31.57%
  2. 30%
  3. 36%
  4. 31%
  5. 31.25%

Q81. Total items sold by Shop F is 20% more than that by shop C and the ratio of total TV sold and cell phone sold by shop F is 7:15. Find the number of TV sold by F.

  1. 685
  2. 620
  3. 672
  4. 670
  5. 666

Q82. Find the difference between sum of cell phone sold by C and E together and total items sold by A.

  1. 685
  2. 620
  3. 600
  4. 680
  5. 660

Q83. Find the ratio of TV sold by D to cell phones sold by B.

  1. 19:10
  2. 19:11
  3. 10:19
  4. 18:19
  5. 19:22

Q84. If 12.5% of TV sold by D are defective and total items sold by D that are defective is 280. Find the defective cell phones sold by D.

  1. 185
  2. 120
  3. 100
  4. 180
  5. 186

Q85. Average number of cell phone sold by B, C and E.

  1. 900
  2. 720
  3. 400
  4. 800
  5. 720

Directions (86-90): Read the information and answer the following question given below.

The information is about the staffs (lab assistant and professor) in three colleges. For A – total lab assistant and total professor is 82.

For B – total lab assistant is 4 more than total lab assistant in C. For C – total lab assistant is 6 less than total professor

Note – total professor in A is 44 less than total lab assistant in B.

Total staffs in C is 24 more than that in A and total professor in al the college is 102.

Q86. Find the total staff in B.

  1. 90
  2. 80
  3. 60
  4. 65
  5. 70

Q87. Find the ratio of total professors in B to total lab assistant in A.

  1. 6:1
  2. 6:7
  3. 6:5
  4. 1:2
  5. 3:1

Q88. The ratio of total staff is in college D to lab assistant in A is 3:4. Total lab assistant in D is 20 less than that in C. Find the professor in D.

  1. 24
  2. 25
  3. 20
  4. 30
  5. 50

Q89. Total professor in A is what percentage of total staff in B.

  1. 9.09%
  2. 11.11%
  3. 12.5%
  4. 30%
  5. 25%

Q90. Find the average of total lab assistant in A and C.

  1. 61
  2. 62
  3. 63
  4. 64
  5. 65

Q91. The boat goes downstream X kilometer in two hours. The same distance covered by boat in upstream in three hours. If the speed of stream is of 3km/h, then find 2X?

  1. 12
  2. 18
  3. 18
  4. 24
  5. 30

Q92. A invest Rs. 6400 and B invest Rs. 7200 in a business. After 4 months, A withdrawal 30% of the initial investment and C join with 40% of initial investment of B. After one year, the total profit is 90000. Find the profit of A and C(in Rs.) approximate?

  1. 48486
  2. 42486
  3. 44494
  4. 57640
  5. 77865

Q93. A jar contains milk and water. The ratio of milk and water is 8 : x. When 5 liters of milk and 30 liters of water is added into the jar, then the ratio of milk to water becomes 1 : 1. Find x.

  1. 6
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 3
  5. Can’t Determined

Q94. A rectangular park having twice length of the breadth. A half pathway width of 4 cm having area of is 352 m². Find the length of the rectangular park (in meters)?

  1. 92
  2. 180
  3. 184
  4. 176
  5. 88

Q95. The speed of a train is 72 km/h and it crosses a platform in 25 seconds. If the train crosses an athlete whose speed is 18 km/h running in same direction of train in 10 seconds, then find the length of platform (in meters)?

  1. 150
  2. 400
  3. 450
  4. 350
  5. 500

Q96. The selling price of an article is Rs. 624 and a shopkeeper got a loss of 22%. If he marks up same article at 30% above the cost price and get a profit of Rs. 84, then find the discount percentage allowed by the shopkeeper?

  1. 7.5%
  2. 5%
  3. 20%
  4. 10%
  5. 15%

Q97. Gopi invested Rs. X in scheme A at rate of 15% p.a. for two years. The amount received by Gopi from scheme A is reinvest in scheme B at the rate of 10% p.a. for two years on compound interest. If the difference between interest received from A and B is 32.4, then find X?

  1. 1500 Rs.
  2. 1200 Rs.
  3. 1000 Rs.
  4. 1800 Rs.
  5. 800 Rs.

Q98. 7 men, 15 women can complete a piece of work in 15 days and the same work is completed by 18 men and 20 women in eight days. If X men and 20 women can complete the work in 10 days. Then find X.

  1. 18
  2. 16
  3. 24
  4. 12
  5. 20

Q99. A set of four consecutive multiple of four, and its average is 30. If another series which is five consecutive even number series which lowest number is equal to second lowest multiple of these four consecutive multiples of four. Find the highest number of five consecutive even number series?

  1. 36
  2. 34
  3. 32
  4. 30
  5. 38

Q100. The sum of the present ages of P & Q and R & Q is 64 years and 56 years, respectively. The ratio of the age of P after 12 years to the age of Q six years ago is 4:X. If the age of R after 12 years is 32 years, then find X.

  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 3
  4. 7
  5. 9

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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