IBPS PO Prelims 2022 Question Paper

Directions (1-9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the questions.

A tourist’s paradise, India is a magnum of diverse geography and cultures, offering 30 World Heritage sites, 25 biogeographical zones and attractive beaches. Tourism in India accounts for 6.8% of the GDP, and is the third largest foreign exchange earner for the country with USD 18.13 Billion. Neglecting the promotion of tourism is harmful to the Indian economy. In recent years, there has been an increased realization that the tourism growth potential can be harnessed as a strategy for Rural Development. With 69% population living in rural India, and almost 6.5 million village units spread across the country, India plays a vital role in harnessing rural tourism. The geographical diversity of India makes it a unique spot for harnessing rural tourism which can include tourist sites like desert, mountains, plains, plateaus, islands and coasts in different regions. India showcases a variety of cultural patterns having different lifestyles, practices, art and craft, and festivals. These can be incorporated and in the form of rural tourism.

Factors such as increasing level of awareness, growing interest in heritage and culture, and improved accessibility have fueled a move of trends towards rural tourism. This will not only preserve the culture and heritage of the country, but will also generate employment in the villages since it can be leveraged to provide skill development in tourism related job roles such as that of guide, driver, cook, housekeeping and hospitality to the tourists. Ministry of Tourism specifies that any form of tourism that showcases the rural life, art, culture and heritage at rural locations, benefits the local community

economically and socially, and enables interaction between the tourists and the locals can be termed as rural tourism. Rural tourism may include multiple facets such as farm tourism, cultural tourism, nature tourism, adventure tourism, and eco-tourism. The country has seen successful rural tourism models in states such as Kerala’s backwater, Karnataka’s forest, and Tamil Nadu’s temple.

Q1. What is the importance of tourism for the growth of the Indian economy?

1. Tourism is crucial for the enhancement of

India’s goodwill internationally

1. The contribution of travel and tourism to GDP in India is six and eight tenth percent
2. Government earns a major part of its revenue from taxes on the tourism sector
3. Tourism is the third largest source of foreign exchange earnings in India
4. Both (b) and (d)

Q2. Which of the following fall(s) under the definition of rural tourism set by the Ministry of Tourism?

1. Tourism should have social and economic advantages for the local community.
2. Tourism should exhibit heritage in villages, rural life, art, and culture.
3. Tourism should promote interaction between tourists and the natives.
4. All of these
5. Only (a) and (c)

Q3. In what ways rural areas get benefitted from tourism?

1. Tourism gives rise to various employment and conserves culture and heritage.
2. Rural areas experience drastic transformation to become attractive enough for travelers
3. Local cuisines can get promoted through tourism, which in long run helps them in getting GI tag.
4. Rural people get opportunity to take their culture to national and international level
5. Both (a) and (b)

Q4. What make(s) rural areas attractive tourist destinations?

1. The heterogeneity of culture of Indian rural areas attracts tourists
2. Green environment along with pollution-free fresh air tempts tourists
3. Diversity in physical features of rural areas of India is a ground for tourism
4. Hospitality of the rural population provokes tourism in Indian villages
5. Both (a) and (c)

Q5. Which of the following statements is Incorrect as per the information given in the passage? (a)Adventure tourism is one of the several facets of tourism in India.

1. Karnataka’s backwater has been a successful

rural tourism model in India.

1. India has 30 world heritage sites and 25 biogeographical zones.
2. India’s sixty-nine percent population resides in rural areas
3. All are correct

Q6. Which of the following words is a synonym of

MOVE given in the passage? (a)convey

(b)crawl (c)shift (d)mutter

(e)None of these

Q7. Which of the following words is the most suitable for the given blank in the passage?

1. amplified
2. leveraged
3. fortified
4. invoked
5. None of these

Q8. Which of the following words is an antonym of

VITAL given in the passage? (a)retreat

(b)timid (c)precise (d)trivial (e)None of these

Q9. Which of the following words is a synonym of

HARMFUL given in the passage? (a)detrimental

1. ameliorate (c)fugitive (d)consorted (e)None of these

Directions (10-14): In the following questions, six sentences are given. You have to rearrange these sentences to make a contextually meaningful paragraph. After rearranging the given sentences, answer the questions given below.

• 1. Challenging Victorian dogma, Darwin argued that species were not immutable i.e., each one specially created by God.
  2. That is all he wrote about the dawning of the single most consequential species on the planet.
  3. In 1859, Charles Darwin published the most important scientific book that is ever written ‘On the Origin of Species’.
  4. Rather life on Earth had evolved through descent from a common ancestor with modification by means of natural selection.
  5. It revolutionized society’s understanding of the

natural world.

• 1. But, surprisingly on Homo sapiens, Darwin made only a passing mention, that “light will be thrown on the origin of man and his history”.

Q10. Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement?

(a)C

(b)B

(c)D

(d)F

(e)A

Q11. Which of the following will be the fifth statement after rearrangement?

(a)C

(b)B

(c)D

(d)F

(e)A

Q12. Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?

(a)C

(b)B

(c)D

(d)F

(e)A

Q13. Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement?

(a)C

(b)B

(c)E

(d)D

(e)A

Q14. Which of the following will be the only coherent rearrangement of the given sentences? (a)CDEABF

(b)FDCBAE (c)ECDBAF (d)CEADFB (e)BDCBFE

Directions (15-19): In the following questions, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which does not contain any grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, mark the “all are correct” option as the answer choice.

Q15. (a) An appreciation of beauty can and should involve consideration of virtue and the improvement of morality character.

1. Greek scholars and poets were held discussions in the walled recesses of exedrae, which were often used for rest and contemplation.
2. High glucose levels disrupt the body’s inflammatory system, leading for a host of complications, and a number of diseases.
3. Since the overthrow of the dictator Ferdinand Marcos, in 1986, the Philippines has been a democracy, if an often dysfunctional one.
4. All are correct

Q16. (a) Official days and months to recognize this or that group can seem gratuitous and ultimately meaningless while we as a society choose to take them seriously.

1. We argue rashly and adventurously, by reason that, as well as ourselves, our discourses have great participation in the temerity of chance.
2. Help is desperately needed to support wildlife rangers, local communities, and law enforcement personnel to have prevented wildlife crime.
3. Responding to the pandemic has lead to the creation of the most intrusive and stringent laws of modern times, affecting every aspect of our lives.
4. All are correct

Q17. (a) Critics have long argued that the expansion of the fair-trade movement across the European countries have come with significant costs.

1. Events in the early 1990s mark the end of legislated apartheid, but the social and economic effects remained deeply entrenched.
2. Long, floating bridges are extremely sensitive to stormy weather and high winds, which can cause them to destabilise.
3. Like all functional role concept, truth must be realized, and it may be realized in different ways in different settings.
4. All are correct

Q18. (a) In terms of social cachet and temporal precedence, bicyclists are believed to be worse off than everyone else.

1. Funnelling investments through banks that toed the government line allowed political considerations to take precedence over risk assessment.
2. Last year, the government issued every taxpayer a $1200 refund in hopes of restoring equilibrium to a depressed economy.
3. The variety of New York’s geography provides not only great beauty but also opportunities for recreation.
4. All are correct

Q19. (a) In Descartes’ system, it would appear that laws of physics are necessary or that eternal truths are necessary as well.

1. Travellers often complain that it isn’t fair to be charged more for a hotel room during the summer from in the winter.
2. Email exchanges can often escalate or fizzle out, whereas face-to-face meetings often cut by some of the adversarial email responses sometimes generated by differences in culture and approach.
3. In an ideal society, a free people will be governed by a law that is not arbitrary, but rather corresponds to what is fit, and is able to be apprehended by reason.
4. All are correct

Directions (20-22): In each question, four words have been highlighted, which may or may not be in their correct positions. Choose the rearrangement order of these highlighted words from the given options so that it gives a coherent sentence.

Q20. Replacing the office’s technology (A) computer outdated (B) with new system (C)would allow (D)the workers to get a lot more done.

1. ACDB
2. BCAD
3. DBCA
4. CADB
5. No rearrangement needed

Q21. The allure (A)of the fresh (B)herbs caused the chef to intended (C)more money than he spend (D)at the market.

(a)BACD (b)DCAB (c)ABDC (d)CDAB

(e)No rearrangement needed

Q22. There is a horizon (A)of outskirt (B)buildings on the industrial (C)of our small town, but we tend to ignore them since they ruin the cluster (D).

1. DCBA
2. DCAB
3. ABDC
4. CDAB
5. No rearrangement needed

Directions (23-25): In each question, four words have been highlighted, which may or may not be in their correct positions. Choose the interchange needed between them to make a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.

Q23. My art project (A)required me to assemble

1. a clippings (C)of magazine collection (D).
   1. Only (A)-(B)
   2. Only (C)-(D)
   3. Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
   4. Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
   5. No replacement needed

Q24. You will never be able to find a better (A) company than a dog, as a dog will always loyal (B) by you and be stand (C)to you if you treat (D)him right.

1. Only (A)-(C)
2. Only (B)-(C)
3. Both (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
4. Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
5. No replacement needed

Q25. The playground was jumped (A)with equipment (B)as fifty students filled (C)and climbed all over the mayhem (D)

1. Only (A)-(C)
2. Only (B)-(C)
3. Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
4. Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
5. No replacement needed

Directions (26-27): Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence to make it grammatically as well as contextually correct.

Q26. The losing team made a but futile effort to catch up to their opponent.

1. illustrious
2. valiant
3. refrained
4. reached
5. redundant

Q27. My grandmother has extremely health so she sees her doctor once a week.

1. cripple
2. reliant
3. splendid
4. fragile
5. elevated

Directions (28-30): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. The options following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct

phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentences are correct then select option (e) i.e. ‘No replacement required’ as your answer.

Q28. If I will study, I would have passed the exam.

1. I had studied
2. had I studied
3. I have studied
4. Have I studied
5. No replacement required

Q29. She felt an overwhelming desire to return back home.

1. desire of returning back
2. desires to return
3. desire to returned back
4. desire to return
5. No replacement required

Q30. No sooner had I closed my eyes than I fell asleep.

1. No soon had I
2. No soon I had
3. I had no sooner
4. No sooner I have
5. No replacement required

Direction (31 – 35): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answers.

Q31. I. 𝑥² − 15𝑥 + 56 = 0

II. 𝑦² − 8𝑦 + 15 = 0

1. 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
2. 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
3. 𝑥 > 𝑦
4. 𝑥 < 𝑦
5. 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.

Q32. I. 𝑥² + 12𝑥 + 35 = 0

II. 𝑦² + 7𝑦 + 10 = 0

1. 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
2. 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
3. 𝑥 > 𝑦
4. 𝑥 < 𝑦
5. 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.

Q33. I. x² – 3x – 40 = 0

II. y² + 11y + 30 = 0

1. 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
2. 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
3. 𝑥 > 𝑦
4. 𝑥 < 𝑦
5. 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.

Q34. I. 2x² + 14x – 16 = 0

II. y² – y – 12 = 0

1. 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
2. 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
3. 𝑥 > 𝑦
4. 𝑥 < 𝑦
5. 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.

Q35. I. 2x² – x – 3 = 0

II. 2y² – 6y + 4 = 0

1. 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.
2. 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
3. 𝑥 > 𝑦
4. 𝑥 < 𝑦
5. 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦

Direction (36 – 40): Read the given data carefully and answer the questions.

There are 900 students in a college and they are either from one or more categories i.e. A, B and C games. The ratio of total students in only A, only B and only C is 2 : 3 : 5 respectively. Total students in all three categories are 50% of total students in only C. The sum of total students who are in only B & C but not A and total students who are in only A & C but not B is 155. Total number of students who are in A & B but not C are 30 less than total number of students who are in only B.

Q36. Find the difference between total students in all three categories and the number of students in category A.

1. 40
2. can’t determined
3. 50
4. 55
5. 32

Q37. Find the ratio of total students in category B to that of in category C?

1. can’t determined
2. 2 : 3
3. 3 : 5
4. 2 : 7
5. 3 : 4

Q38. If in only category A, 30% are boys. Find the total number of girls in only category A?

1. 56
2. 70
3. 49
4. 72
5. 80

Q39. Find the total number of students are in at most two categories?

1. 755
2. 765
3. 715
4. 775
5. 735

Q40. Find the total number of students are in only one category?

1. 300
2. 500
3. 400
4. 600
5. 800

Direction (41-45): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series: Q41. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

1. 46
2. 42
3. 44
4. 48
5. 52

Q42. 24, 49, ?, 219, 388, 677

1. 98
2. 108
3. 88
4. 96
5. 78

Q43. 48, 55, 76, ?, 160, 223

1. 122
2. 101
3. 111
4. 119
5. 114

Q44. 15, 16.5, 19.5, 24, ?, 37.5

1. 40
2. 30
3. 32
4. 33
5. 36

Q45. 2, 6, 30, 210, ?, 20790

1. 1890
2. 1860
3. 1990
4. 1830
5. 1960

Q46. Present age of A is 12 years more than C, while C is three years younger than B. The ratio of present age of A to that of B is 6 : 5. Find the sum of age (in years) of B and C ten years hence will be?

1. 117
2. 103
3. 107
4. 111
5. 105

Q47. A and B invested Rs. X & Rs. (X +900) respectively in a business. After eight months, B left the business. At the end of a year, the total profit is Rs. 5800 and profit share of B is Rs. 1000 more than that of A. Find X (in Rs.).

1. 1000
2. 1600
3. 600
4. 1200
5. 800

Q48. In a vessel water is 25% of the milk. When 10 liters of mixture was taken out from the vessel and

25 liters’ milk was added in the vessel, then

quantity of milk become 400% more than the

quantity of water in resulting mixture. Find the initial quantity (in liters) of milk in the vessel.

1. 116
2. 108
3. 102
4. 112
5. 114

Q49. The sum of cost price of two articles A and B is Rs. 350. Both articles marked up 60% above cost price. If marked price of article B is Rs. 80 more than that of A, then find the cost price (in Rs.) of article A?

1. 165
2. 135
3. 155
4. 195
5. 145

Q50. Perimeter of a rectangle is 108 cm and length of rectangle is 40 cm. Find how many semicircles of maximum radius can be drawn inside the rectangle?

1. 12
2. 13
3. 14
4. Can’t determined
5. 17

Q51. The ratio of upstream to downstream speed of a boat is 3 : 5 and the approximate time to cover 60 km 3 meters downstream and 60 km 2 meters upstream is 16 hours 10 minutes. Find time (approx.) taken by boat to cover 37 km in upstream?

1. 4 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6 hours
4. 12 hours
5. 10 hours

Q52. The station B lies between station A and C. The distance between A & B is 400 km and the distance between B & C is 375 km. Time taken by a train to cover distance between A & B and distance between B & C is same. If speed of the train to cover distance between A & B is 40 km/hr. then

find the difference between the average speed of the train and the speed of train by which it covers distance between B & C?

1. 1.75
2. 1.25
3. 1.15
4. 1.35
5. 2.25

Q53. Efficiency of Ritu is 60% more than Rakesh and difference between the number of days taken by them to complete a work in 18 days. If efficiency of Rahul is 12.5% less than Ritu, then find the time taken by all the three to together to complete the work.

1. 10 days
2. 12 days
3. 9.5 days
4. 7 days
5. 5.5 days

Q54. A man invested Rs. X and Rs. 2X at 15% simple interest and at 8% compound interest (compounding annually) for two years respectively. If difference between simple interest and compound interest received after two years is Rs.820, then find the value of X.

1. Rs.25000
2. Rs.30600
3. Rs.28600
4. Rs.22200
5. Rs.26200

Q55. A annually saves 15% and 20% of his income in 2017 and 2018 respectively. If A annually saves Rs. 45000 in 2017, then find the amount saved by A in 2018.

1. 40000 Rs.
2. 36000 Rs.
3. 60000 Rs.
4. Can’t determine
5. 48000 Rs.

Direction (56 – 60): The bar graph given below shows the amount (in’000) of tax paid by three different people. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.

60

50

40

30

20

10

0

Tarun Apurv Mayank

2018 2019

Q56. If Apurv paid income tax and GST in 2019 in the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively, then find the sum of income tax paid by Apurv in 2019 and total tax (in Rs.) paid by Tarun in 2018 (Apurv pain only income tax and GST)?

1. 72000
2. 56000
3. 66000
4. 64000
5. 60000

Q57. Total taxed paid by Tarun in both years is what percent (approx.) more or less than total taxed paid by Mayank in both years?

1. 35%
2. 33%
3. 25%
4. 27%
5. 29%

Q58. Find the difference between total tax paid by Apurv in both years and total tax paid by Mayank and Tarun in 2019?

1. 35000 Rs.
2. 20000 Rs.
3. 50000 Rs.
4. 40000 Rs.
5. 30000 Rs.

Q59. Find the ratio of total tax paid by Tarun and Mayank in 2018 to total tax paid by Apurv in 2018?

1. 6 : 7
2. 5 : 4
3. 6 : 5
4. 3 : 4
5. 5 : 8

Q60. Mayank paid ¹ 𝑡ℎ of his income as tax in 2018

4

and his income increased by 25% in 2020 over the

2018, while the ratio of tax paid by Mayank in 2018 to that of in 2020 is 9 : 10. If Mayank spends

¹ 𝑡ℎ and 25% of his remaining income on rent in

6

2018 & 2020 respectively, while remaining he

saved. Find the difference between saving of Mayank in both years?

1. 7500 Rs.
2. 15000 Rs.
3. 12500 Rs.
4. 17500 Rs.
5. 10000 Rs.

Directions (61-65): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Table given below shows the total number of registered votes in two (A & B) blocks and total number of valid votes these in two blocks in two (2012 & 2015) different years.

Note: Number of votes registered in any year = Number of valid votes + Number of invalid votes casted.

Years	Registered votes in block A	Registered votes in block B	Valid votes in block A	Valid votes in block B
2012	750	1200	200	1000
2015	900	1300	720	1000

Q61. Out of the total invalid votes of block A in 2012, the ratio of male votes to female votes was 6:5 respectively. Find the difference between the total female invalid votes of block A in 2012 and the total invalid votes in block B 2015.

1. 25
2. 45
3. 60
4. 50
5. 40

Q62. Total invalid votes of block A and B together in 2015 is how much percent more or less than the total valid votes in both the blocks in 2012?

1. 60%
2. 40%
3. 25%
4. 75%
5. 20%

Q63. If the invalid votes in block B in 2012 were again allowed for a recast and only 25% were valid from them, then find the total number of valid votes in block B in 2012 after recasting.

1. 1405
2. 1260
3. 1075
4. 1190
5. 1050

Q64. Find the difference between average number of invalid votes of both blocks in 2012 and average number of invalid of both blocks votes in 2015.

1. 135
2. 106
3. 115
4. 129
5. 125

Q65. Find the ratio of total valid votes of block A in 2012 to total votes registered of block B in 2015.

1. 1 :11
2. 2:13
3. 10: 17
4. 12 : 11
5. 9:7

Direction (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Five persons are living on different floors of five storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the 1st floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 5th floor. Each of them uses different raw materials in their cloths.

G lives three floors above the one who uses Fibres. No one lives between H and the one who uses

Fibres. D lives above H but not just above. F lives just above the one who uses leather. F lives on an odd numbered floor. The one who uses cotton lives above E. The one who uses wool lives above the floor of the one who uses Silk but not just above.

Q66. How many persons live between G and the one who uses Wool?

1. None
2. Three
3. Two
4. One
5. Can’t be determined

Q67. Who lives on the bottom most floor?

1. D
2. F
3. None of these
4. E
5. H

Q68. Which of the following is correct match?

1. G-silk
2. F-cotton
3. E-fibres
4. D-leather
5. H-wool

Q69. How many persons live above H?

1. Two
2. Four
3. One
4. Three
5. Can’t be determined

Q70. The number of persons live above E is same as the number of persons live below .

1. F
2. D
3. The one who uses cotton
4. The one who uses silk
5. Both F and the one who uses cotton

Directions (71-73): In each question below some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the

conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q71. Statements: Some Hero are Film. Some Film are Star. All Star are Actor.

Conclusions: I. Some Actor are Film.

II. Some Hero are not Star.

1. If only conclusion I follows.
2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q72. Statements: Some A are B. All C are D. No B is C.

Conclusions: I. Some D are not B.

II. Some D are B.

1. If only conclusion I follows.
2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q73. Statements: All Book are Pen. Some Pen are Eraser. All Eraser are Pencil.

Conclusions: I. Some Book are Pencil.

II. No Pencil is Book.

1. If only conclusion I follows.
2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Direction (74-78): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit in a row but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them faces north direction and rest of them faces south direction. At most two persons sit to the right of A who doesn’t face north direction. Three persons sits between A and B who is the only immediate neighbour of C. Three persons sit between E and G and none of them sit adjacent to

A. H sits 2nd to the right of C. D and G sits

immediate right of each other. Immediate neighbours of A face same direction. Number of persons sit to the right of H is two more than the number of persons sit to the left of E.

Q74. How many persons sit between A and H?

• 1. None
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four
  5. One

Q75. What is the position of F with respect to D?

1. Immediate left
2. 2nd to the right
3. 3rd to the left
4. 2nd to the left
5. Can’t be determined

Q76. Who among the following sit 3rd to the left of G?

1. C
2. F
3. B
4. A
5. None of these

Q77. Which of the following pair is adjacent to each other?

1. G, B
2. F, G
3. F, A
4. H, D
5. None of these

Q78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus forms a group, then who among the following doesn’t belong to that group?

1. F
2. C
3. E
4. D
5. H

Direction (79-81): Study the following information carefully and answer the related questions.

There are nine members i.e., H, R, D, W, K, T, F, X and A live in a family. F is mother of R who is the

only son of X. H is sister-in-law of A who is mother of both K and T. H is married to D who is parent of

W. K is only grandson of X. Neither W nor X has any sibling. W is the niece of R.

Q79. How is F related to T?

1. Mother
2. Aunt
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Grandmother
5. None of the above

Q80. Who is the mother-in-law of D?

1. A
2. F
3. T
4. X
5. None of the above

Q81. How is H related to T?

1. Maternal Aunt
2. Paternal Aunt
3. Sister-in-law
4. Niece
5. None of the above

Direction (82-85): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nine persons are going to attend an event one after another. At most two persons attend event before G. Three persons attend event between C and G. Two persons attend event between C and B. One person attends event between B and K who attends event after B. F attend event just before L. There are as many persons attend event before L as after H. E attend event exactly between B and K. D attend event before E.

Q82. How many persons attend event after K?

1. Four
2. Three
3. Five
4. Six
5. More than six

Q83. The number of persons attend event between G and F is same as the number of persons attend event between and .

1. L, B
2. H, D
3. E, L
4. C, B
5. H, G

Q84. How many persons attend event between D and the one who attend just before K?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. One
5. None of these

Q85. The number of persons attend event between K and G is half than the number of persons attend event after .

1. B
2. E
3. H
4. L
5. F

Q86. Find the odd one out?

1. VYT
2. DGB
3. MPK
4. HKG
5. TWR

Direction (87-89): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A starts from point D in east direction and walks 22m to reach point L. He takes his left turn and walks 10m and reach at point K. Now he takes his right and walks 30m to reach at point H. After that he takes his left and walks 15m to reach at point

M. B start walking in east direction from point M

and walks 45m to reach at point E. He takes his right turn and walks 22m to reach at point G. Now he takes his left and walks 10m to reach at point F. Finally, B walks 10m right from point F to reach at point N.

Q87. What is the difference between distance covered by A and B?

1. 15m
2. 20m
3. 10m
4. 25m
5. 30m

Q88. In which direction is point F with respect to point L?

1. North-east
2. East
3. North
4. South-west
5. None of these

Q89. If point X is 7m south of point D then what is the shortest distance between point X and point N?

1. 112m
2. 118m
3. 106m
4. 107m
5. 110m

Q90. In the word ‘CHAIRMAN’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them (both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabet?

1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. More than four

Direction (91-95): Study the given information carefully and answer the related questions.

Six persons sit around a circular table facing towards the centre. All of them have different number of flowers viz. 29, 14, 36, 43, 51 and 47. One person sits between M and R who have 14 flowers. Two persons sit between the one who have 29 flowers and M. S sits immediate left of A who doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who have 29

flowers. A doesn’t have 29 flowers. S have more flowers than M and difference between the number of flowers of both of them is 15. O neither have 29 flowers nor 43 flowers. H is one of the persons.

Q91. Who among the following have 29 flowers?

1. M
2. H
3. S
4. A
5. None of these

Q92. How many persons sit between the one who have 43 flowers and H?

1. One
2. Three
3. Two
4. Either two or one
5. Either three or one

Q93. Which of the following combination is correct?

1. S – 36
2. A- 47
3. H- 29
4. M- 43
5. All are correct

Q94. Who among the following sits just right of the one who have 36 flowers?

1. O
2. H
3. S
4. R
5. None of these

Q95. Who among the following face M?

1. The one who have 51 flowers
2. A
3. H
4. The one who have 47 flowers
5. None of these

Q96. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the 2nd, 5th, 6th and 7th letter from the left end of the word ‘HOPEFUL’, then which of the following will be the 2nd letter of the meaningful word thus formed. If more than one meaningful

word is formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?

1. Z
2. O
3. L
4. F
5. Z

Direction (97-100): In the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Q97. Statements: A > M < X < V; D ≤ L = M; D > S

Conclusions: I. A > SII. A > V

1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Either I or II is true.
4. Neither I nor II is true.
5. Both I and II are true.

Q98. Statements: M > A ≥ P > U; E < R > U; E ≥ L >

W

Conclusions: I. M > L II. W ≤ A

1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Either I or II is true.
4. Neither I nor II is true.
5. Both I and II are true.

Q99. Statements: Q ≥ W > X > Z; E > Z; E > C

Conclusions: I. C < QII. E ≤ W

1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Either I or II is true.
4. Neither I nor II is true.
5. Both I and II are true.

Q100. Statements: L > W < U < B; W ≥ X > P; P > T

≥ K

Conclusions: I. L > TII. K < U

1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Either I or II is true.
4. Neither I nor II is true.
5. Both I and II are true.

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