IBPS Clerk Prelims 2025 Question Paper – 5th Oct Shift

Directions (1-5): The table given below shows the number of kiwi and plums sold in three different months (April, May, June).

Months	Kiwi	Plum
April	120	118
May	112	177
June	354	95

Q1. Find the average number of kiwi sold in May and June.

1. 233
2. 221
3. 222
4. 111
5. 287

Q2. Find the ratio of plum sold in the month of April to plum sold in May.

1. 1:3
2. 1:1
3. 2:1
4. 2:3
5. 2:7

Q3. If of kiwi sold in May are rotten, then find the difference between rotten kiwi and plum sold in June.

1. 97
2. 79
3. 72
4. 71
5. 77

Q4. If the kiwi sold for Rs. 10 and plum sold for Rs.5, then find the difference between selling price of both kiwi and plum in the month of May.

1. 233
2. 221
3. 235
4. 222
5. 287

Q5. Find the kiwi sold in June is what percentage of plum sold in April and May together.

1. 120
2. 100
3. 90
4. 95
5. 80

Directions (6-10): The bar graph shows the number of persons visited in four cities (i.e. A, B, C & D).

Q6. Find the average number of persons visited A, C & D.

1. 52
2. 51
3. 62
4. 61
5. 87

Q7. Find the ratio of person visited A to B & C together.

1. 23:31
2. 22:1
3. 21:22
4. 3:14
5. 2:17

Q8. If number of persons visited A is increased by 33.33%, then find the difference between person visited A and person visited D.

1. 32
2. 26
3. 22
4. 14
5. 24

Q9. In city E, the number of people visited is sum of person visited A and D. Find the number of persons visited E.

1. 60
2. 70
3. 50
4. 55
5. 80

Q10. Person visited D is what percentage of person visited in B.

1. 66.66
2. 33.33
3. 31
4. 61
5. 25

Directions (11-22): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following question.

Q11. 48% of 250 + 45% of 600 = ?

1. 390
2. 350
3. 300
4. 325
5. 375

Q12. ? ×(12+10% of 60)=135

1. 5.5
2. 6.5
3. 4.5
4. 5
5. 7.5

Q13.

1. 900
2. 950
3. 850
4. 800
5. 750

Q14. 4.8×5 + 8 × 0.75 =?

1. 40
2. 20
3. 30
4. 50
5. 60

Q15.

1. 5
2. 8
3. 10
4. 15
5. 11

Q16.

1. 4
2. 11
3. 6
4. 15
5. 7

Q17. 2√75 × 2√300 =?

1. 100√3
2. 120
3. 75√3
4. 500
5. 600

Q18.

1. 34
2. 6
3. 28
4. 12
5. 20

Q19. 25% of (? + 360) = 150

1. 140
2. 300
3. 340
4. 200
5. 240

Q20.

1. 12
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
5. 10

Q21.

1. 60
2. 25
3. 62
4. 50
5. 30

Q22. 24 × 2? = 32 × 64

1. 6
2. 9
3. 5
4. 7
5. 3

Q23. A man invested 3400 in simple interest at 12% p.a. for (x+1) years. If the interest received by him is 3/5th the amount invested, then find x.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 5
5. 1

Q24. The upstream speed of a boat is 12 km/hr more than the speed of a stream. If the boat can cover 45 km downstream in 2.5 hours, then how much distance is covered by the boat upstream in 5 hours?

1. 70 km
2. 30 km
3. 25 km
4. 50 km
5. 44 km

Q25. The ratio of the present ages of A to B is 16:9, respectively. If the age of A eight years hence is twice the age of B two years hence, then find the present age of B (in years).

1. 14
2. 12
3. 18
4. 16
5. 20

Q26. The ratio of milk to water in a 208-liter mixture is 3:5. If 70 liters of water and X liters of milk are added to the mixture, then the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture becomes 7:10, respectively. Find X.

1. 72
2. 68
3. 62
4. 58
5. 52

Q27. There are three positive integers A, B, and C, and A is 8 more than C. The sum of A and B is 26, and B is 2 less than C. Find the ratio of A, B, and C, respectively.

1. 2:4:5
2. 6:4:7
3. 9:3:5
4. 5:4:9
5. 9:4:5

Q28. A, B, and C together can complete a work in 12 days. B and C together can complete the same work in 20 days. Find the time taken by A alone to complete the whole work (in days).

1. 30
2. 20
3. 25
4. 10
5. 15

Q29. A 300-meter-long train can cross a 190-meter-long platform in 14 seconds. If the speed of the train increased by 20%, then find the time (in seconds) taken by the train to cross a man with a speed of 10.8 km/hr in the opposite direction.

1. 12.5
2. 8.33
3. 6.67
4. 3.33
5. 16.67

Q30. Rs P was invested in compound interest at 20% p.a. for two years, and the total amount after two years is Rs 8064. Find P.

1. 5500
2. 4800
3. 5600
4. 5000
5. 4500

Q31. A, B, and C started a business with investments of Rs 4000, Rs 6000, and Rs X. After 1 year the profit share of B is Rs 2400 out of a total profit of Rs 7200. Find X.

1. 9000
2. 6000
3. 4000
4. 8000
5. 3000

Q32. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 10 hours and 15 hours, respectively, and pipe C can empty the filled tank in 20 hours. If all three pipes opened together, then in how many hours would the tank be filled?

1. 47/7
2. 52/7
3. 66/7
4. 33/7
5. 60/7

Q33. A truck can cover 80 km in 5 hours. The speeds of the truck and a car are in the ratio of 2:5, respectively. Find the total distance covered by the car in 4 hours.

1. 160 km
2. 120 km
3. 130 km
4. 140 km
5. 150 km

Q34. The ratio of the weight of A to B is 1:2, and the weight of A to C is 2:3, respectively. If the average weight of A, B, and C is 18 kg, then find the weight of B (in kg).

1. 12
2. 18
3. 30
4. 24
5. 8

Q35. The perimeter of a rectangle is 92 cm, and the ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 14:9, respectively. If the side of a square is 2 cm more than the breadth of the rectangle, then find the perimeter of the square (in cm).

1. 74
2. 80
3. 50
4. 64
5. None of these

Directions (36-44): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Solo travel is often romanticized in movies and travel blogs, yet the reality of venturing out alone requires not just enthusiasm, but a great deal of strength and conviction. For many, the idea of traveling solo is both exciting and intimidating. The freedom of making your own plans, waking up without a set schedule, and discovering new cultures at your own pace can be liberating. But it also comes with its own set of challenges that many people are hesitant to face.

One of the first hurdles is the initial hesitation. People often fear loneliness, safety concerns, or simply the discomfort of doing things alone. A surprisingly common fear is eating alone in a public space. The thought of sitting in a restaurant without company, with others watching, makes many people self-conscious. They worry about what others might think, and this anxiety is sometimes enough to discourage them from solo travel altogether.

However, those who do take the plunge often discover that the benefits far outweigh the fears. Solo travel builds resilience. It teaches you how to for yourself, how to plan with precision, and how to handle unexpected situations with calm. With every solo trip, travelers gain more confidence in their decisions, and a stronger sense of independence.

Staying safe while traveling alone is, understandably, a top concern. This is where preparation becomes key. Carrying travel insurance, knowing emergency contacts, researching local customs, and keeping a close watch on surroundings are all essential parts of traveling alone responsibly. It’s not about being paranoid, but about being prepared and aware. A solo traveler must learn to make smart choices that keep them safe while still allowing for exploration and adventure.

Moreover, solo travel allows deep personal reflection. Without distractions, many travelers find a sense of peace and clarity. They meet new people not because they have to, but because they genuinely want to. They engage in conversations, take risks, and often come back home changed in subtle but meaningful ways.

In the end, solo travel isn’t for everyone, and that’s okay. But for those who are willing to move past hesitation and face the journey alone, it becomes a transformative experience. It is not just about seeing new places—it is about seeing oneself with new eyes, built on the foundation of courage, planning, and conviction.

Q36. Which of the following best explains why many people hesitate to travel alone?

1. They are unsure of how to make proper bookings and manage expenses alone.
2. They are uncertain about how to socialize with other travelers during group tours.
3. They fear social judgment and discomfort from performing solo activities in public.
4. They do not trust travel blogs or movies that romanticize solo travel experiences.
5. They believe that solo travel requires expert-level navigation and survival skills.

Q37. What does the passage suggest about the emotional impact of solo travel?

1. It leaves people emotionally drained due to constant planning and vigilance.
2. It results in people becoming overly dependent on their personal routines.
3. It isolates individuals from meaningful social interactions and bonding.
4. It facilitates inner clarity and emotional growth through solitude.
5. It reinforces the notion that traveling alone should be avoided.

Q38. According to the passage, which of the following is not mentioned as a way to stay safe during solo travel?

1. Buying travel insurance.
2. Keeping emergency contacts handy.
3. Avoiding crowded tourist spots.
4. Being aware of local customs.
5. Watching surroundings attentively

Q39. Identify the statement that is incorrect according to the passage:

• 1. Solo travel always leads to social anxiety, even after repeated attempts.
  2. Personal growth is one of the outcomes of overcoming solo travel fears.
  3. Confidence and independence can be developed through solo travel.
     1. Only (I)
     2. Only (II)
     3. Only (III)
     4. Both (I) and (II)
     5. Both (II) and (III)

Q40. Choose the synonym of the word “safe” based on its usage in the passage:

1. Secure
2. Adventurous
3. Isolated
4. Cautious
5. Restricted

Q41. Choose the antonym of the word “watch” as used in the passage:

1. Ignore
2. Observe
3. Monitor
4. Notice
5. Guard

Q42. Choose the synonym of the word “conviction” based on its usage in the passage:

1. Doubt
2. Hesitation
3. Certainty
4. Indifference
5. Anxiety

Q43. Choose the most suitable option to fill the given blank:

1. provide assistance
2. make decisions
3. watch out
4. prepare mentally
5. depend emotionally

Q44. Why is travel insurance emphasized for solo travelers in the passage?

1. To reduce the cost of expensive bookings and transportation in emergencies.
2. To gain access to luxury accommodations in unfamiliar destinations.
3. To prepare for unplanned situations and ensure safety while traveling alone.
4. To track the location of other travelers during group excursions.
5. To avoid having to interact with local authorities in a foreign country.

Directions (45-49): The following five sentences, labeled (A) to (E), are jumbled. Rearrange them to form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. Then answer the follow-up questions.

• 1. This early opening time is rare, especially for a bookstore in a quiet town.
  2. A cozy bookstore near the riverbank surprises many by opening its doors at 5 AM.
  3. He believes inspiration often strikes in silence, and he wants the store to reflect that.
  4. The owner, a former writer himself, understands the unusual rhythm of the creative mind.
  5. As a result, the place has become a quiet haven for early- rising poets and novelists.

Q45. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q46. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q47. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q48. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

Q49. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

Directions (50-53): For the following question, a sentence is provided with few highlighted words that may be incorrectly positioned. Choose the correct sequence to rearrange these words, ensuring the sentence is both grammatically and contextually correct.

Q50. She spent the favourite (A) afternoon reading her

entire (B) novel while sipping (C) hot coffee on the balcony.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q51. The teacher explained the concept thoroughly (A) simple examples, using (B) that every student understood the topic ensuring (C).

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. BCA
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q52. The created (A) announcement unexpected (B) a sense of confusion among the employees, leading (C) to numerous questions and speculations.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q53. The travel agency offered (A) attractive discounts on international tour packages to explore (B) more people to encourage (C) different cultures.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Directions (54-58): In the following sentence, a word is missing and replaced by a blank. Choose the best word from the given options that can fit into the sentence without altering the intended meaning.

Q54. Water in drought-hit areas has pushed

governments to invest in desalination and recycling solutions.

1. calamity
2. charity
3. atrocity
4. scarcity
5. bolster

Q55. She accepted the new role with great ,

eager to contribute fresh ideas and take on new challenges.

1. negligence
2. apathy
3. racism
4. enthusiasm
5. exciting

Q56. Many people success comes quickly,

but it often requires years of persistence, learning, and failure.

1. admired
2. assume
3. describe
4. disapprove
5. discard

Q57. The app is quick payments for small

businesses.

1. facilitating
2. showing
3. spending
4. discovering
5. reflecting

Q58. The sudden change in schedule caused ______________ among attendees, delaying the start of the event.

1. conformity
2. clarity
3. confusion
4. casual
5. serenity

Directions (59-60): In the question below, a part is highlighted in bold, which may not be grammatically correct. Choose the correct alternative for the highlighted part to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Q59. The spike in housing prices has led many first-time buyers to postponing their plans indefinitely.

1. to postpone their plan indefinitely
2. to postponed their plans indefinitely
3. to postpone their plans indefinitely
4. in postponing their plans indefinite
5. No improvement required

Q60. The judge ruled that the footage obtained from the drone was not being admissible in court due to privacy violations.

1. was not been admissible
2. was not admissible
3. were not being admissible
4. has not being admissible
5. No improvement required

Directions (61-63): Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as the answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q61. The startup founder (A)/ was confident that his idea (B)/ was more superior (C)/ than any other on the market. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q62. Neither the influencer (A)/ nor her followers (B)/ was aware of (C)/ the fake sponsorship deal. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q63. The crypto investor (A)/ was accused for (B)/ manipulating prices (C)/ using fake news. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q64. In the question below, four sentences are given in which only one is correct. Choose the correct statement as the answer choice. If all the statements contain errors, then choose option “All are incorrect” as the answer choice.

1. The tourists were exciting to see the Northern Lights for the first time.
2. The journalist wrote an article on how misinformation affect public opinion.
3. The government’s new guidelines aims to promote road safety.
4. The rescue team was able to save everyone trapped in the collapsed tunnel.
5. All are incorrect

Q65. In the question below, four sentences are given in which only one is correct. Choose the correct statement as the answer choice. If all the statements contain errors, then choose option “All are incorrect” as the answer choice.

1. Despite of the warnings, several people entered the restricted zone.
2. The new museum exhibit displays fossils that date back millions of years.
3. Every student in the class were given a participation certificate.
4. The volunteers distribute food packages to the flood victims yesterday.
5. All are incorrect

Directions (66-70): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions.

Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square shaped table in such a way that four of them sit at the corners and face inside while the other four sit at the middle of each side and face outside. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

G sits on the middle of the side of the table. Only two persons sit between G and B. F sits immediate right of B. A sits third to the left of F. Three persons sit between H and D. H and G are not immediate neighbours. C sits immediate left of H.

Q66. Who among the following sits third to the left of E?

1. A
2. F
3. C
4. D
5. G

Q67. How many persons sit between B and C when counted from left of C?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Q68. Which of the following statements is/are true?

• 1. F and H are immediate neighbours
  2. E sits opposite to G
  3. C faces outside
     1. Only I
     2. Only I and II
     3. Only II and III
     4. Only II
     5. Only III

Q69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one who does not belong to the group. B C H D A Q70. What is the position of G with respect to H? Third to the left Second to the right Immediate left Third to the right Immediate right Q71. In the word ‘MONETARY’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them (both forward and backward direction) as in the English alphabet? None Two One Three More than three Q72. In the question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer- Statements: Only a few stars are comet Some comet is not moon Some moon is satellite Conclusions: Some satellite is not comet All stars being moon is a possibility If neither conclusion I nor II follows If only conclusion II follows If either conclusion I or II follows If only conclusion I follows If both conclusions I and II follow		Q73. In the question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer- Statements: Only a few cup is bottle All bottle is fork No fork is plate Conclusions: No bottle is plate Some cup is plate If either conclusion I or II follows If only conclusion II follows If only conclusion I follows If neither conclusion I nor II follows If both conclusions I and II follow Q74. In each question below some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer- Statements: All moments are good Some memories are good No memories is past Conclusions: Some good are moments Some moments are past Only I Only II Either I or II Neither I nor II Both I and II Directions (75-77): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six persons – J, K, L, M, N, and P – have different heights, but not necessarily in the same order. K is taller than P but shorter than N. As many persons are taller than N as shorter than L.J is shorter than M. N is taller than J but not the tallest. P is shorter than L. K is shorter than J but taller than L.
8

Q75. Who among the following is two persons taller than J? No one N M L Can’t be determined Q76. How many persons are shorter than L? One Two Three Four None Q77. Who among the following is the third tallest? P K Can’t be determined J L Q78. Find the odd one out? GKI PTS NRP TXV LPN Directions (79-83): Study the following series carefully and answer the questions given below: D 3 P M 9 A Z % X 2 5 @ K C 6 * T 7 Q ^ 4 G $ 1 L ¥ B 8 Q79. Which element is fifth to the right of eleventh element from the right end? G $ K 1 L Q80. If all the odd digits are removed from the series, which element will be fourteenth from the left end? T * 6 C K		Q81. How many symbols are between fifth letter from the left end and fourth digit from the right end? None One Two Three Four Q82. How many such letters are in the series which are immediately preceded by an even digit and immediately followed by a symbol? One None Two Three Four Q83. How many such consonants are immediately followed by an even digit? Two Three More than three One None Directions (84-88): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on different floors of an eight-floor building where floors are numbered as 1 to 8 from bottom to top respectively. D lives four floor above A. G lives immediately below A. Two persons live between G and B. Number of floors above B and below C are same. F lives immediately above H. Q84. E lives on which of the following floor? 5 2 7 3 6 Q85. Who among the following lives on floor 6? B D F H C
9

Q86. How many persons live below H?

1. Four
2. Two
3. Five
4. Seven
5. Six

Q87. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and belong to a group, which among the following is not related to the group?

1. FD
2. HC
3. BA
4. EG
5. DG

Q88. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

• 1. Two persons live between H and B
  2. A lives on 2nd floor
  3. One person lives above F
     1. Only II
     2. Only I and II
     3. Only III
     4. Only I
     5. Only I and III

Directions (89-93): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

In a certain code language:

‘data strong file secure’ is written as ‘ra mi lo ki’ ‘internet access strong code’ is written as ‘no pa mi tu’ ‘digital backup file code is written as ‘xu tu lo sa’ ‘digital internet access secure is written as ‘xu no pa ra’

Q89. What is the code for ‘secure’?

1. ra
2. mi
3. lo
4. no
5. pa

Q90. Which of the following word is coded as ‘sa’?

1. File
2. Digital
3. Backup
4. Code
5. Internet

Q91. What may be the code for ‘digital access’?

1. sa pa
2. xu pa
3. mi xu
4. ra sa
5. no pa

Q92. What will be the code for ‘strong signal’?

1. no mi
2. he cm
3. mi cm
4. tu sa
5. mi lo

Q93. Which of the following words may be coded as ‘no ki’?

1. Internet data
2. Access wire
3. Code secure
4. Strong data
5. Digital backup

Q94. In the number ‘273518496’, if all digits are arranged in descending order from left to right, then which digit will be 3rd to the right of 8th digit from right end?

1. 7
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6
5. 5

Q95. In the word ‘ENTROPY’, if all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left, then find how many letters will remain same on their position?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four

Directions (96-100): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W work on different designations in a company, but not in same order as given. The designations are manager, assistant manager, supervisor, team lead, coordinator, officer, executive, clerk (given in decreasing order of seniority from manager to clerk respectively).

P is senior to team lead. Two designations are in between P and Q. R is immediately junior to Q. Number of persons senior to R is same as the number of persons junior to T. V is four persons senior to W who is not clerk. S is senior to R.

Q96. How many designations are in between U and S?

1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
5. Five

Q97. Who among the following is designated as manager?

1. W
2. S
3. P
4. V
5. T

Q98. What is the designation of S?

1. Assistant manager
2. Officer
3. Team lead
4. Supervisor
5. Coordinator

Q99. Which of the following combination is correct?

1. Assistant Manager – V
2. Supervisor – P
3. Coordinator – Q
4. Officer – R
5. Executive – U

Q100. Who among the following is designated two designations senior to R?

1. W
2. V
3. S
4. T
5. U

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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