IBPS Clerk Prelims 2025 Question Paper – 4th Oct Shift

Directions (1-5): The table shows the three languages (English, Hindi and Urdu) books sold by A and B.

Books	English	Hindi	Urdu
A	28	50	36
B	55	54	32

Q1. Find the number of English book sold by A and B together is what percentage of Hindi books sold by A.

1. 166%
2. 120%
3. 66%
4. 20%
5. 100%

Q2. If X sold 25% more English books than A, then find the difference between English book sold by X and Hindi books sold by B.

1. 16
2. 19
3. 20
4. 22
5. 24

Q3. Find the ratio of Hindi book sold by B to Urdu books sold by A.

1. 3:2
2. 2:3
3. 2:1
4. 2:5
5. 2:9

Q4. Find the average number of books of three languages sold by B.

1. 46
2. 49
3. 47
4. 42
5. 44

Q5. Find the difference between total books sold by A and B.

1. 16
2. 32
3. 20
4. 27
5. 18

Directions (6-10): The line graph given below shows the number of people visiting in four different malls (A, B, C & D).

The number of people visiting malls

440

400

360

320

280

240

200

A

B

C

D

Q6. Find the ratio of total people visiting A to total people visiting C.

1. 11:14
2. 12:13
3. 14:11
4. 12:5
5. 12:19

Q7. Find the average of total people visiting A, B and C.

1. 280
2. 320
3. 200
4. 210
5. 220

Q8. The people visiting B is what percentage of people visiting D.

1. 180.96
2. 70.95
3. 80.95
4. 127.65
5. 118.77

Q9. The ratio of male to female visitor in C is 3:1, find the male visitor in C.

1. 160
2. 132
3. 120
4. 210
5. 180

Q10. The ratio of people visiting mall D to mall E is 4:5. Find the difference between people visiting mall E and

Q17. ⁴

5

of √1225 ÷

¹ of (729)3 = ? + 1

3 3

1

mall A.

1. 316
2. 325
3. 320
4. 277
5. 305

Directions (11-22): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q11. 784 + 1297 – 613 = ?

1. 1468
2. 1342
3. 1454
4. 1086
5. 1338

Q12. ? = 225 ÷ 45 ÷ 5 × 75

1. 25
2. 75
3. 50
4. 15
5. 90

Q13. 7^? = 343 ÷ 512 × 64 × 56 ÷ 49

1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 4
5. 2

Q14. (120 +36) ÷ (12 – 6 ) = ?

1. 21.5
2. 26.5
3. 21.5
4. 23.5
5. 22.5

Q15. (3080 + 6160) ÷ ? = 330

1. 26
2. 22
3. 28
4. 29
5. 18

Q16. 144-(10800÷36)+?2=100

1. 10
2. 18
3. 15
4. 9
5. 16
6. 10
7. 18
8. 15
9. 9
10. 3

Q18. ⁵ th of 160% of ? = √225 × 4

8

1. 70
2. 80
3. 60
4. 40
5. 50

Q19. 24×?=225% of 2400

1. 144
2. 121
3. 225
4. 324
5. 81

Q20. [(40)² × 8] ÷ 50 ÷ 16 =?

1. 3
2. 9
3. 16
4. 12
5. 15

Q21. 65%𝑜𝑓 1700 + 17² =?

13

1. 412
2. 413
3. 374
4. 339
5. 328

Q22. (35% of 40 ×10)+29= ?

1. 144
2. 169
3. 225
4. 81
5. 25

Q23. A vessel contains 56 liters of milk and water in the ratio of 4:3, respectively. If Y liters of water are added to the mixture, then the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture becomes 8:7, respectively. Find Y.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 3
5. 6

Q24. A started a business with an investment of Rs 2400, and after 3 months, B joined with an investment of Rs X. At the end of the year the profit share of A to B is 2:1, respectively. Find X.

1. 1600
2. 1200
3. 1800
4. 1500
5. 1000

Q25. There are two positive integers, A and B, and the ratio of A to B is 3:2, respectively. If 16 is subtracted from A and added to B, then the final ratio of A to B is 19:26, respectively. Find the initial value of A.

1. 42
2. 48
3. 56
4. 40
5. 54

Q26. A man invested Rs 1600 in simple interest at X% p.a. for five years and received interest of Rs 840. If he invested the same amount in simple interest at (X+5)%

p.a. for 3 years, then find the interest received (in Rs).

1. 650
2. 840
3. 744
4. 966
5. 624

Q27. The area of a right-angle triangle is 180 cm² and the height of the triangle is 24 cm. If the side of a square is 3 cm less than the base of the triangle, then find the area of the square (in cm²).

1. 100
2. 196
3. 144
4. 169
5. 121

Q28. The ratio of the present ages of A to B is 9:5, respectively. If the ratio of A five years hence and B 5 years ago is 16:5, respectively, then find the sum of ages of A and B after 10 years (in years).

1. 42
2. 77
3. 72
4. 57
5. 62

Q29. A boat can cover 192 km downstream in 4 hours and 210 km upstream in 5 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is decreased by 20%, then find the distance covered by the boat in still water in 3 hours.

1. 102 km
2. 120 km
3. 110 km
4. 108 km
5. 116 km

Q30. A person brought X chocolates to distribute equally among his 30 friends. However, 3 friends did not arrive, so the remaining friends each received 1 chocolate more than they would have if all 30 friends were present. Find the total number of chocolates, X.

1. 300
2. 270
3. 240
4. 210
5. 180

Q31. The number of adults and children together who visited a park on Sunday is 50. If the ticket price for each adult is Rs 30 and each child is Rs 20 and the total amount received by the park on Sunday is Rs 1350, then find the number of adults.

1. 15
2. 27
3. 25
4. 20
5. 35

Q32. A shopkeeper marked article A is 25% above its cost price and allowed a 10% discount on it. The shopkeeper earned a profit on article A of Rs 75, and the cost price of article B is 40% more than that of article A. If he gets a 20% loss on article B, then find the selling price of article B (in Rs).

1. 642
2. 688
3. 672
4. 698
5. 666

Q33. A car travels from City A to City B at a speed of 60 km/h, and returns from City B to City A at a speed of 90 km/h. Find the average speed of the car during the entire journey.

1. 60 km/hr
2. 78 km/hr
3. 72 km/hr
4. 66 km/hr
5. 50 km/hr

Q34. A, B, and C together can complete a piece of work in 10 days, and B and C together can do the same work in 25 days. Find the time taken by A alone to complete the work (in days).

1. 6.67
2. 8.33
3. 12.5
4. 13.33
5. 16.67

Q35. In a college, 40% of the students participated in science fair, 25% participated in sports, and the remaining participated in cultural events. If 315 students participated in cultural events, find the difference between the number of students who participated in science fair and sports.

1. 125
2. 135
3. 130
4. 120
5. 115

Directions (36-44): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

In the world of armed forces, dogs play an extraordinary role that goes far beyond companionship. They serve as trackers, guards, messengers, and protectors, often working in harsh terrains and unpredictable missions. Military dogs are essential for detecting hidden explosives, tracking infiltrators, and alerting troops to potential threats. Their sharp instincts, unmatched loyalty, and rigorous preparation make them indispensable partners in critical operations. They are not just supporting figures; they are front-line defenders. Far from being fillers in military structures, these brave animals are sentinels, standing watch when danger lurks and acting with courage when every second counts.

Among these remarkable canines was Snowy, a spirited dog with a gleaming white coat that earned him his name. From the moment he arrived at the training center, his alert eyes and quick learning impressed everyone. Snowy was trained at a specialized military academy where he mastered complex commands, learned to detect explosives, and adapted to challenging terrains. He was conditioned to remain calm under pressure, respond to silent signals, and work seamlessly with his handler. His training was not merely about obedience; it was about building instincts, discipline, and trust.

Once Snowy joined the unit at a remote border post, he quickly became a beloved member of the team. Soldiers admired his energy, while his handler relied on his sharp senses during night patrols. One freezing night, the camp lay quiet under a pale moonlight. The soldiers were resting after a long day when Snowy’s ears suddenly . He sensed movement near the perimeter. Without hesitation, he barked sharply and ran toward the fence, alerting the guards. His timely reaction allowed the soldiers to spot and intercept a group trying to cross the border secretly. Snowy’s vigilance averted a potential threat, and that night, he truly embodied the role of a sentinel—watchful, fearless, and devoted.

Beyond his operational duties, Snowy shared a deep emotional bond with the soldiers. He sensed when someone was anxious, resting his head gently on their knees, as if offering silent comfort. He celebrated victories with wagging enthusiasm and stood quietly beside those who missed home. Snowy was more than a military dog; he was a loyal friend, a trusted partner, and a hero in his own right. His story reflects the invaluable role dogs play in safeguarding lives and supporting those who protect the nation.

Q36. Choose the correct synonym of the word “trained” as highlighted in the passage:

1. adapted
2. rehearsed
3. conditioned
4. informed
5. corrected

Q37. Choose the correct synonym of the word “just” as highlighted in the passage:

1. only
2. fair
3. upright
4. balanced
5. truthful

Q38. Which of the following statements best reflects the role of military dogs as described in the passage?

1. Military dogs are used mostly for companionship and stress relief for soldiers.
2. These dogs are generally involved in ceremonial roles and parade formations.
3. Military dogs are essential field operatives with specialized skills for real-time threats.
4. They are deployed occasionally in supportive roles but rarely during combat situations.
5. Dogs are preferred mainly for their obedience and general discipline in camps.

Q39. Choose the most suitable word to fill the given blank.

1. flattened down
2. tuned out
3. perked up
4. drooped slowly
5. looked away

Q40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

1. Snowy was recognized early on for his ability to adapt to silent cues.
2. The soldiers trusted Snowy with night-time surveillance responsibilities.
3. Snowy’s training included emotional sensitivity training towards soldiers.
4. Snowy demonstrated promptness in averting a potential border infiltration.
5. Snowy played a meaningful role in both operational and emotional support capacities.

Q41. Which of the following statements is correct as per the information in the passage?

1. Dogs like Snowy operate under constant supervision due to their unpredictable behavior.
2. Snowy’s quick actions resulted in capturing multiple terrorists attempting a direct assault.
3. Emotional bonds between military dogs and soldiers develop mainly through training exercises.
4. Snowy adapted to hostile environments and acted proactively during critical moments.
5. Military dogs are used primarily to bridge the communication gap between different units.

Q42. Choose the correct synonym of the word “sentinel” as used in the passage:

1. officer
2. guardian
3. warrior
4. protectorate
5. disciplinarian

Q43. Why is Snowy’s reaction on the freezing night a significant event in the narrative?

1. It reveals how animals tend to become hyperactive in colder temperatures.
2. It highlights the failure of automated systems to detect intruders.
3. It exemplifies how a trained dog can respond faster than human guards.
4. It marks the first instance of Snowy disobeying his handler’s commands.
5. It shows how dogs can create panic in secure areas if not trained properly.

Q44. Identify the incorrect statement from the options below:

1. Snowy’s bond with the soldiers helped him recognize their emotional states.
2. Dogs in the army are trained in both physical endurance and situational response.
3. Snowy’s white coat was the primary reason for his placement at the snowy border.
4. The narrative uses Snowy’s experience to exemplify the role of military dogs.
5. Dogs like Snowy act without hesitation when sensing suspicious activity.

Directions (45-50): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

Medical research in Country X has recently ____(A) a

remarkable step by combining modern science with ancient discoveries. During a/an ____(B) in a remote desert region,

the archaeological department unearthed ancient ruins believed to be more than two thousand years old. Among the artifacts and broken pottery, researchers found a nearly intact human skeleton. This discovery opened the door to a unique

____(C) between archaeologists and medical scientists.

The team decided to reconstruct the skeleton using advanced imaging and 3D modeling techniques. Each bone was carefully scanned to ____(D) the physical structure and study the

individual’s health conditions. Early findings revealed signs of joint wear, healed fractures, and dental patterns that gave clues about diet and lifestyle. Interestingly, traces on some bones suggested the use of basic surgical techniques, indicating a surprisingly advanced medical understanding in ancient times.

This interdisciplinary research provided valuable ____(E)____ not only into historical practices but also into genetic traits and disease patterns relevant today. By merging archaeology with medical science, Country X demonstrated how ancient

____(F)____ can guide modern research. Through this reconstruction, the past was revived, offering a clearer picture of human history and medical evolution.

Q45. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?

1. built
2. given
3. taken
4. produced
5. shifted

Q46. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?

1. excavation
2. production
3. elevation
4. execution
5. implementation

Q47. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?

1. continuation
2. collaboration
3. joint
4. merge
5. togetherness

Q48. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?

1. initiate
2. entangle
3. chain
4. recreate
5. revolve

Q49. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?

1. point
2. intuition
3. perceiving
4. understands
5. insights

Q50. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?

1. ruin
2. remains
3. decayed
4. dispose
5. excesses

Q51. A word has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

DISCORD

• 1. There was growing discord among the team members after the project deadline was missed.
  2. The sweet discord of the violin filled the concert hall with peace.
  3. Political discord between the two countries led to years of tension.
     1. Only (I)
     2. Only (II)
     3. Both (I) and (III)
     4. Both (II) and (III)
     5. All of these

Directions (52-55): In the following question, a word or phrase has been highlighted in the sentence. Choose the option that can best replace the highlighted word or phrase to make the sentence both grammatically and contextually correct. If no replacement is required, select “No replacement required” as the answer.

Q52. She couldn’t restrain her excitement upon hearing the news.

1. express her excitement
2. hide her disappointment
3. control her excitement
4. intensify her excitement
5. No replacement required

Q53. The leader attempted to curb the growing unrest

among the workers.

1. ignore the unrest
2. control the increasing unrest
3. provoke the unrest
4. spread the unrest further
5. No replacement required

Q54. She tried to mask her embarrassment after making the mistake.

1. explain her action
2. reveal her shame
3. hide her discomfort
4. increase her confidence
5. No replacement required

Q55. She managed to temper her frustration despite the delay.

1. amplify her annoyance
2. moderate her anger
3. dismiss her patience
4. prolong her agitation
5. No replacement required

Directions (56-60): Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, then choose option ‘No error’ as the answer response. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q56. The judge have (A)/ ordered an inquiry (B)/ into the financial irregularities (C)/ reported by the media. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q57. The cyberattack (A)/ was so severe (B)/ that it disrupted services (C)/ across several countries yesterday. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q58. The government is (A)/ planning to increase (B)/ the number of EV charging station (C)/ in the next fiscal year. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q59. The journalist has being (A)/ reporting live (B)/ from the conflict zone (C)/ for over a week now. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q60. Many voters (A)/ expressed their concerns (B)/ about how the new law will affects (C)/ digital privacy rights. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Directions (61-65): For the following question, a sentence is provided with few highlighted words that may be incorrectly positioned. Choose the correct sequence to rearrange these words, ensuring the sentence is both grammatically and contextually correct.

Q61. Urban demand (A) projects often threaten historical

1. sites, prompting activists to development (C) stricter cultural preservation laws.
   1. ACB
   2. BAC
   3. CAB
   4. CBA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q62. New enforcement (A) aim to protect user data online, yet regulations (B) across international platforms remains

1. inconsistent.
   1. ACB
   2. BAC
   3. CAB
   4. CBA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q63. Trade tensions (A) between major businesses (B) have disrupted supply chains, forcing economies (C) to diversify their sourcing strategies.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q64. Rising ocean temperatures are leading (A) marine ecosystems, altering (B) to shifts in species distribution (C) and coral reef degradation.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q65. Although turnout influenced (A) in the recent election, misinformation campaigns still behavior (B) public perception and voter increased (C).

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. CBA
5. No rearrangement required

Directions (66-70): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are placed one above another in a stack but not in the same order as given.

Three boxes are placed between box W and box R. Box T is placed two boxes above box R. Box P is placed just below box T but above box W. Two boxes are placed between box P and box V. Box S is placed three boxes below box V. Box Q is placed adjacent to box W.

Q66. How many boxes are placed above box U?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. More than four

Q67. Which box is placed just above box Q?

1. Box U
2. Box R
3. Box P
4. Box S
5. Box V

Q68. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

• 1. Two boxes are placed between box Q and box S
  2. Box R is placed adjacent to box U
  3. Box T is at topmost position
     1. Only I
     2. Only II
     3. Only I and II
     4. Only II and III
     5. Only I and III

Q69. If all boxes are placed alphabetically from top to bottom, then how many box will remain same on their position?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four

Q70. Which box is placed five boxes below box T?

1. Box Q
2. Box W
3. Box S
4. Box V
5. Box U

Directions (71-73): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

1. If only conclusion I is true
2. If only conclusion II is true
3. If either conclusion I or II is true
4. If both conclusions I and II are true
5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q71. Statements: K ≥ R > M = J > T ≤ F > H

Conclusions:

• 1. M > F
  2. R > T

Q72. Statements: L ≤ T < W < Z = D ≤ P < G

Conclusions:

1. P > T
2. L < Z

Q73. Statements: A ≤ M > Y > B ≥ X > C ≤ F

Conclusions:

1. Y > C
2. M ≥ F

Q74. How many pair of digits are in the number ‘37481265’, each of which have as many digits between them as in the number series (both forward and backward order)?

• 1. Three
  2. One
  3. Four
  4. Two
  5. None

Directions (75-77): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Point A is 5m west of point B which is 9m north of point C. Point D is 12m east of point D. Point E is 15m north of point D. Point F is 12m west of point E. Point G is 4m north of point F.

Q75. What is the shortest distance between point C and point G?

1. 19m
2. 27m
3. 15m
4. 21m
5. None of the above

Q76. What is the direction of point D with respect to point A?

1. North
2. North-west
3. North-east
4. East
5. South-east

Q77. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, which of the following is not related to the group?

1. A – D
2. B – E
3. A – C
4. G – E
5. F – D

Directions (78-82): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight persons H, K, M, P, O, T, X and Y sit around a circular shaped table facing inside, but not in same order as given.

P sits second to the right of T. Two persons sit between P and

O. Three persons sit between M and H. K sits immediate left of H who sits second to the left of Y.

Q78. What is the position of X with respect to Y?

1. Third to the left
2. Second to the left
3. Third to the right
4. Immediate right
5. Second to the right

Q79. How many persons sit between O and T when counted from the left of T?

1. Two
2. One
3. Three
4. None
5. Four

Q80. Who among the following sist second to the right of X?

1. Y
2. O
3. T
4. K
5. M

Q81. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, which of the following is not related to the group?

1. K – P
2. H – M
3. X – T
4. O – Y
5. K – O

Q82. Who among the following sits fourth to the left of Y?

1. X
2. O
3. K
4. P
5. T

Directions (83-85): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

A certain number of persons sit in a row facing north. Two persons sit between B and E. C sits immediate right of E. Three persons sit between D and C. No one sits to the left of D. Four persons sit between A and C. Number of persons sit to the left of B is same as the number of persons sit to the right of A.

Q83. What is the position of B with respect to D?

1. Second to the left
2. Sixth to the right
3. Eighth to the left
4. Fifth to the right
5. Second to the right

Q84. How many persons sit in the row?

1. 13
2. 18
3. 15
4. 17
5. 16

Q85. How many persons sit between A and D?

1. Six
2. Nine
3. Eight
4. Seven
5. Ten

Directions (86-90): Read the given series carefully and answer the related questions:

2 # 4 5 $ * 8 3 ^ 9 2 7 1 & 1 6 % 4 9 3 @ 2 5

Q86. How many symbols are immediately followed by an even digit?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. More than four

Q87. Which of the following element is 11th from the right end?

1. 1
2. &
3. 7
4. 6
5. 2

Q88. How many od digits are between % and #?

1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Three
5. Seven

Q89. Which of the following is the second symbol to the right of third even digit from the left end?

1. %
2. &
3. @
4. $
5. *

Q90. How many digits are immediately followed and immediately preceded by a symbol?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One
5. None

Q91. Find the odd one out.

1. ROU
2. JGM
3. DFA
4. LIO
5. VSX

Q92. If we form a four-letter meaningful word using first, second, fourth and eighth letter (from left) of the word ‘CATEGORIZE’, then what would be the second letter from right end of that meaningful word. If no such meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as X and if more than one meaningful word is formed, mark the answer as Y?

1. C
2. E
3. A
4. X
5. Y

Directions (93-95): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

In a family of eight-persons, G is mother-in-law of M who is father of V and B only. D is sister-in-law of V who is not married. H is the son of G’s spouse. K has one daughter. C is a male member.

Q93. What is the relation of C with respect to M?

1. Father-in-law
2. Uncle
3. Father
4. Cousin
5. Brother-in-law

Q94. Who among the following is K’s daughter?

1. G
2. V
3. D
4. B
5. Either B or V

Q95. What is the relation of B with respect to H?

1. Niece
2. Nephew
3. Son-in-law
4. Daughter-in-law
5. Granddaughter

Directions (96-100): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born on same date of different months of a year, but not in same order as given. The months are February, March, April, May, June, July, October and November.

S was born after June. Three persons were born between S and

T. Q was born just before T but not in March. Number of persons born before Q and after P is same. R was born three persons before P. V was born just before U.

Q96. Who was born in April?

1. W
2. Q
3. T
4. U
5. V

Q97. How many persons were born between W and T?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Q98. W was born in which month?

1. February
2. October
3. June
4. November
5. July

Q99. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, which of the following is not related to the group?

1. T
2. U
3. S
4. W
5. R

Q100. Which of the following statement is/are true?

• 1. One person was born between R and P
  2. Two persons were born before V
  3. S is older to U
     1. Only I
     2. Only III
     3. Only II
     4. Only I and II
     5. Only II and III

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