IBPS Clerk Prelims 2022 Questions Paper

Directions (1-8): Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on that.

Home is where the heart is, or so goes the adage. But the human heart did not always crave a still hearth. In fact, before the emergence of agrarian societies, the early humans journeyed along the roads taken by their prey — hunter-gatherer societies were mobile and the road was their life. But with the rise of agrarianism, humans learnt to put down their roots and a life of journeys became something to be frowned upon. Yet, vestiges of the wandering spirit persist. In the year, 2000, Herman and Candelaria Zapp set out in a car from Buenos Aires to travel the world. The Zapps’ home is the road — literally and proverbially. They have had four children in different countries, and in an era of strict visa regimes and rising insularity, managed to treat borders as what they truly are — arbitrary and artificial lines on a map. The world was a different place when the Zapps set out — there were no smartphones, the internet was in its infancy, a site of knowledge and hope rather than disinformation and division, the twin towers towered over New York, and Russia was a diminutive shell stripped of its Soviet grandeur. It is tempting to imagine that the Zapps

Kishore Kumar’s immortal song, “Musafir hoon yaaron, na ghar hai na thikana”, as they

covered great distances across a changing world.

The Zapps, interestingly, are not an anomaly. Latest estimates show that over one million Americans live permanently in recreational vehicles with no permanent address. Many are retired, but many others work part of the year, just long enough to keep them going for a few months or so. It is easy to romanticize the lifestyle and the idea of freedom that it brings. But in most countries, people without a stationary home are subjected to intense legal scrutiny. Law enforcement institutions are even prejudiced against specific communities. For example, in the United States of America, there are legislations that make it illegal to sit on the sidewalk, to camp or sleep anywhere in a downtown area or to hang around in a public place without an apparent purpose. The intent seems to encourage sanitization of space of some kinds of human presences. These laws are not unique to the US. Anti-vagrancy laws have existed for hundreds of years — think of the persecution of gypsies across Europe. In the old United Kingdom, vagrants could be put in jail, sold as slaves, or sometimes even killed for no other reason than wandering. Colonial India, too, had witnessed the purge of nomadic communities, most notably under the guise of the campaign against thuggees.

Q1. According to the passage, what changes has human society seen from the pre-agrarian era to the present?

  1. Modern humans have diverged their dependency from agriculture, unlike their primitive ancestor whose livelihood was solely based on that
  2. From being a hunter-gatherer nomad society, it evolved into a settled agrarian society
  3. The immense technological advancement in recent years makes it possible to envisage services that were seen as utopian in pre- agrarian era
  4. All of these
  5. None of these

Q2. What was NOT the global situation when the Zapps embarked on their journey?

2

  1. The world was witnessing the inception of the internet
  2. The twin towers were standing tall in New York
  3. Post dissolution of Soviet Union, Russia was still in its timid state.
  4. The world was going through an acute economic crisis due to surge in oil prices.
  5. None of these

Q3. How do the itinerant Americans sustain their lives?

  1. Few of them are retired and thus continued their rest of the lives by travelling on their recreational vehicles
  2. Some of them are engaged in work for a few months of a year and use the rest for traveling
  3. Prominent travel companies and independent organisations sponsor those people who actively travel
  4. Only (a) and (b)
  5. Only (b) and (c)

Q4. How are the countries treating the new age wanderer?

  1. They are subject to legal scrutiny in many countries because of their lack of possession of land.
  2. Many countries assess their livelihood and put their earnings on the tax slab.
  3. Many law enforcement agencies are biased towards these travelers
  4. Only (a) and (c)
  5. All of these

Q5. Which of the following is FALSE according to the data given in the passage?

  1. Thuggees are predominantly nomadic people of colonial India
  2. Germany has a prohibition law for sitting on the sidewalks.
  3. UK has criminalized wandering, to the extent of giving out death sentences.
  4. The Zapps couple had started off from Buenos Aires in the year 2000.
  5. none of these

Q6. Which of the following words can fit into the blank given in the passage?

  1. hummed
  2. iterated
  3. cherished
  4. longed
  5. enunciated

Q7. Which word from among the following words most closely represents the antonym of the highlighted

word “infancy” keeping in consideration its intended meaning in the passage?

  1. service
  2. apprehension
  3. perseverance
  4. maturity
  5. intelligence

Q8. Choose the word from among the following which is most similar in meaning to the highlighted word

3

“insularity” in accordance with its meaning in the given text.

  1. irritation
  2. inflexibility
  3. disbelief
  4. freedom
  5. awareness

Directions (9-14): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately.

Filmmaking research is a form of practice research that (9) into production practices, techniques, modes and genres used in cinema, television and online. The outputs are films that may include (10), documentary and hybrid forms. Filmmaking research pushes at the boundaries of traditional filmmaking and traditional research methods by adopting distinct

(11) to professional and critical practices. This is in contrast to typical industry research where commercial pressures dominate. There have been (12) success stories that demonstrate this potential. Filmmaking research is a developing area and films produced within the academy are growing in number. In both the UK and Australia, this research has tended to (13) in one of two disciplines, creative arts (fine art, experimental, video art) or media, communication and film studies (fiction film, documentary). This has made it fragmented, sometimes difficult to identify and subject to different forms of support and (14). Researchers come from a range of backgrounds, many moving from industry into academia seeking to reframe their work within Higher Education.

Q9. (a) probes

  1. enquires
  2. inquests
  3. surveys
  4. investigate

Q10. (a) friction

  1. segregation
  2. accede
  3. fiction
  4. purport

Q11. (a) regulations

  1. adversaries
  2. approaches
  3. assistances
  4. intervals

Q12. (a) expressed

4

  1. threatening
  2. overlooked
  3. mocking
  4. spectacular

Q13. (a) reside

  1. accommodate
  2. occupy
  3. fuller
  4. lament

Q14. (a) ample

  1. wither
  2. engagement
  3. enrollments
  4. alliance

Directions (15): A word has been given below, and following it are provided three sentences which use the word. Mark the correct option from the options given below which indicates the sentence or combination of sentences with correct usage of the word.

Q15. pore

    1. After I was given the manuscript for my first title role in the play, I began to pore over the script for hours.
    2. It is pore that people show identification before being allowed to board a commercial aircraft.
    3. Before I sign the contract, I decided it would be best for me to pore through it so that the job would run smoothly.
      1. Both (i) and (ii)
      2. Both (i) and (iii)
      3. Only (ii)
      4. Both (ii) and (iii)
      5. All of these

Directions (16-20): Given below are five sentences, each of which has been jumbled up in an order which makes the text incoherent. Mark the option which gives the meaningful rearrangement of the parts of the sentence as the answer.

Q16. The property, they (A) / had to undergo a (B) / in order to purchase (C) / lengthy application process (D).

  1. BDAC
  2. DACB
  3. ADBC
  4. CABD
  5. No rearrangement required

Q17. Constituted the battlefields (A) / of World War Two, encompassing (B) / much of the globe (C) / many conflicts and fronts (D).

5

  1. DABC
  2. BACD
  3. ADCB
  4. BDCA
  5. No rearrangement required

Q18. We received a package (A) / not notice the mail (B) / yesterday but did (C) /until early this morning (D).

  1. DCBA
  2. BDAC
  3. ACBD
  4. CADB
  5. No rearrangement required

Q19. The venomous black widow (A) / are often killed (B) / because they resemble (C) / perfectly harmless spiders (D).

  1. BCDA
  2. DBCA
  3. ADCB
  4. CABD
  5. No rearrangement required

Q20. Look for new jobs (A) / were rigid and uncompromising, (B) / leaving the workers to (C)/ many of

the company’s rules (D).

  1. CDBA
  2. ACBD
  3. DBCA
  4. CABD
  5. No rearrangement required

Directions (21-25): Given below are five sentences, with four words highlighted in each sentence. One of these words may be the misspelt form of a word, making the sentence contextually incoherent. Mark the option which depicts the corresponding letter to the incorrectly spelled word, or mark option (e) if there is none.

Q21. Pat didn’t mean to loose (A) her mother’s favourite (B) bracelet but hasn’t been able to locate (C) it

since she wore (D) it last week.

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No spelling errors

Q22. The unweary (A) gamblers lost all their (B) money when they carelessly (C) put all their chips on the wrong (D) tile.

6

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No spelling errors

Q23. Taking a position as curator (A) at the museum (B), the woman hoped to spread (C) her love for sports memorablia (D) to others.

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No spelling errors

Q24. As my father’s only surviving (A) sister, my aunt took great (B) care of my aging (C) grandparents

until they both passed away recently (D).

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No spelling errors

Q25. Because of technical (A) difficulties (B), the sound of the music floctuated (C) during the concert (D).

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. No spelling errors

Directions (26-30): Which of the phrase/ word from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No replacement required” as the answer.

Q26. Jeff was given a medal of honor in recognition by the twenty-five years he spent fighting for his country.

  1. of recognition by
  2. in recognition of
  3. by recognition of
  4. in recognition at
  5. No correction required

Q27. INS Vikrant is a unique reflection of India becoming self-reliance.

7

  1. becomes self-reliant
  2. became self-reliant
  3. become self-reliance
  4. becoming self-reliant
  5. No replacement required

Q28. There have been a steady spike in cases of cybercrime in the last five years.

  1. has been a stead
  2. has been a steady
  3. has been a steadily
  4. has a steady
  5. No replacement required

Q29. It is vital that every Indian takes a pledge to eliminate discrimination and enable equity.

  1. take a pledge to eliminate
  2. took a pledge to eliminate
  3. takes a pledges to eliminate
  4. take a pledge to elimination
  5. No replacement required

Q30. He was worried that the anger would erupt and led to a law-and-order situation.

  1. would erupts and lead
  2. would erupt and lead
  3. would erupted and led
  4. would erupt and leads
  5. No replacement required

Direction (31 – 35): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series.

Q31. 50, 75, 175, 400, 800, ?

  1. 1435
  2. 1425
  3. 1415
  4. 1405
  5. 1375

Q32. 8, 18, 38, 78, ?, 318

  1. 178
  2. 168
  3. 154
  4. 148
  5. 158

Q33. 41, ?, 53, 64, 77, 94

8

  1. 48
  2. 46
  3. 43
  4. 49
  5. 41

Q34. 215, ?, 89, 47, 19, 5

  1. 136
  2. 139
  3. 143
  4. 145
  5. 141

Q35. 1, 9, 36, 100, 225, ?

  1. 441
  2. 443
  3. 447
  4. 431
  5. 451

Direction (36 – 40); Line graph given below shows total number of boats and ships manufactured by four different companies in 2020 and it also show total number of ships manufactured by these four companies. Read the line graph carefully and answer the questions.

250

200

150

100

50

0

A

B

C

D

total number of (boats + Ships) manufactured

total number of ships manufactured

Q36. If 2rd of total boats manufactured by B are used by general people and rest used by fishermen, then

9

3

find total boats used by fishermen are what percent of total ships manufactured by A?

  1. 30%
  2. 33.33%
  3. 40%
  4. 37.5%
  5. 50%

Q37. If total number of boats and ships manufactured by A in 2021 is 40% more than that of in year 2020 and total number of ships manufactured by A in 2021 is equal to that of in 2020, then find the total number of boats manufactured by A in 2021?

  1. 115
  2. 105
  3. 75
  4. 85
  5. 120

Q38. Find the ratio of total boats manufactured by C & D together to total ships manufactured by B & C together?

  1. 6 : 7
  2. 6 : 5
  3. 5 : 4
  4. 3 : 4
  5. 3 : 5

Q39. If manufacturing cost of each boat for company D is Rs. 4600, then find the total cost (in Rs.) of all boats manufactured by D?

  1. 240000
  2. 236000
  3. 233000
  4. 220000
  5. 230000

Q40. Total boats and ships manufactured by A & B together is what percent more than total boats manufactured by A & D together?

  1. 300%
  2. 175%
  3. 250%
  4. 400%
  5. 350%

Q41. Six years ago, sum of age of Amit and Den is 20 years. Mohit is six years younger than Amit and the average of present age of Mohit and Den is 13 years. Find the present age of Den?

10

  1. 16 years
  2. Can’t determined
  3. 20 years
  4. 14 years
  5. 24 years

Q42. The perimeter of semicircle is 36 cm and the radius of the semicircle is equal to the breath of a rectangle. If area of rectangle is 147 cm2, then find the length of rectangle?

  1. 10.5 cm
  2. 28 cm
  3. 14 cm
  4. 21 cm
  5. 35 cm

Q43. Sum of six consecutive odd numbers is 150 more than average of these six numbers. Find the sum of highest and lowest number?

  1. 60
  2. 50
  3. 70
  4. 45
  5. 55

Q44. P and Q started a business by investing Rs. X and Rs. (X + 100) respectively. After three months, P withdrew 40% of his initial investment. If at the end of year, P got Rs. 210 as profit share out of total profit of Rs. 530, then find the value of X?

  1. 1750
  2. 1250
  3. 2500
  4. 1500
  5. 2000

Q45. A man invested Rs. P on simple interest at 18% p.a. for three years and received Rs. (0.5P + 100) as interest. If man invested Rs. (P + 3500) on compound interest at 10% p.a. for two years, then find amount gets by man?

  1. 7240 Rs.
  2. 7260 Rs.
  3. 7280 Rs.
  4. 7460 Rs.
  5. 7040 Rs.

Q46. Pipe A can fill a tank in 4 hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in 6 hours. If A, B & pipe C can together fill the same tank in 3 hours, then find time taken by pipe C to empty the tank?

11

  1. 24 hours
  2. 12 hours
  3. 16 hours
  4. 8 hours
  5. 18 hours

Q47. The ratio of marked price to selling price of an article is 5 : 3 and shopkeeper gets a profit of 40%. If shopkeeper sells the article at its marked price, then the difference between cost price and marked price of article is Rs. 400. Find the cost price of the article?

  1. 540 Rs.
  2. 480 Rs.
  3. 600 Rs.
  4. 300 Rs.
  5. 360 Rs.

Q48. A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 3. If 50 liter of milk is added into the mixture, then the quantity of milk becomes 80% of the resulting mixture. Find the initial quantity of milk in the mixture?

  1. 112 liters
  2. 105 liters
  3. 84 liters
  4. 70 liters
  5. 56 liters

Q49. Ram alone can complete a work in 40 days. If Ram and Shayam together take 37.5% less time than Ram to complete the same work, then find in how many days Shayam alone can complete the work?

  1. 56 2 days

3

  1. 58 days
  2. 50 days
  3. 66 2 days

3

  1. 33 1 days

3

Q50. Arun spent 60% of his monthly salary on accommodation, 15% of remaining salary on entertainment and remaining salary he saved. If the difference of amount spent on accommodation and his saving is Rs 3510, then find his monthly salary?

  1. Rs 12,500
  2. Rs 13,500
  3. Rs 12,800
  4. Rs 14,000
  5. Rs 15,000

Q51. The length of train A is half of the length of train B and the ratio of speed of train A to B is 4 : 3. If train A & B can cross 100 meters long platform in 5 sec. and 10 sec. respectively, then find the length (in meters) of train B?

12

  1. 200
  2. 180
  3. 140
  4. 240
  5. 120

Q52. The ratio of speed of boat in downstream to that of in upstream is 4 : 1 and total time taken by boat to cover a certain distance in downstream and upstream together is 10 hours. Find the time taken by boat to cover the same distance in still water?

  1. 3 hours and 24 minutes
  2. 3 hours and 12 minutes
  3. 3 hours and 10 minutes
  4. 3 hours and 15 minutes
  5. 3 hours and 20 minutes

Direction (53 – 65): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following questions.

Q53. 64% 𝑜𝑓 2500 + 75% 𝑜𝑓 1600 = ? × 112

  1. 28
  2. 21
  3. 24
  4. 32
  5. 25

Q54. 55% of 1400 + ?2 +282= (12)3

  1. 28
  2. 24
  3. 26
  4. 36
  5. 16

Q55. 7.5% 𝑜𝑓 7200 + 450= 15 % of 3200

?

  1. 15
  2. 24
  3. 20
  4. 18
  5. 12

Q56. ?2 + 224 – 96 = 85% 𝑜𝑓 280 + 34

13

  1. 18
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 14
  5. 8

Q57. √1521 + (21)2 − 18 × 5 = 5 × ?

  1. 80
  2. 78
  3. 64
  4. 70
  5. 96

Q58. ? × 7 + 337 = (5)3 + 436

  1. 36
  2. 44
  3. 48
  4. 45
  5. 32

Q59. ?÷ 6 + (12)2 − √2304 = (14)2

  1. 1100
  2. 400
  3. 600
  4. 900
  5. 1500

Q60. (?× 48) ÷ 54 + 82 = 96

  1. 45
  2. 36
  3. 72
  4. 54
  5. 27

Q61. 2 1 + 5 2 − 3 3 = ? − 8 3

3 3 4 4

  1. 14
  2. 13
  3. 12
  4. 15
  5. 16

Q62. 25×36 + 7 = (? )2

14

92×42

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 6
  5. 3

Q63. 9097÷ 11 ÷ 10 = ? +15.7

  1. 87
  2. 77
  3. 67
  4. 57
  5. 47

Q64. 15×12-10×11 = -15×17 + ?

  1. 330
  2. 345
  3. 335
  4. 325
  5. 365

Q65. 35×5 + 19 × 7 + ? = (20)²

  1. 95
  2. 103
  3. 97
  4. 92
  5. 90

Q66. Find the odd one out?

  1. DGJE
  2. KNQL
  3. UXZU
  4. CFID
  5. MPSN

Direction (67-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of persons sit in a row and all of them face towards the north. Q sits second to the right of M. Two persons sit between J and Q. W sits second to the right of J and sits third from the extreme right end. Five persons sit between W and S. The number of persons sits to the left of S is same as the number of persons sits to the right of W. K is the only neighbour of P. K sits to the right of J.

Q67. How many persons sit in the row?

15

  1. 13
  2. 11
  3. 10
  4. 15
  5. 17

Q68. What is the position of Q with respect to W?

  1. Fourth to the left
  2. Fifth to the right
  3. Second to the right
  4. Fifth to the left
  5. Third to the left

Q69. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

    1. P sits at the extreme right end
    2. More than three persons sit to the left of Q
    3. M sits adjacent to S
      1. Both I and II
      2. Both II and III
      3. Only I
      4. Both I and III
      5. Only III

Q70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Who among the following does not belong to the group?

  1. M
  2. W
  3. P
  4. Q
  5. K

Directions (71-73): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer.

  1. If only conclusion I is true
  2. If only conclusion II is true
  3. If either conclusion I or II is true
  4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
  5. If both conclusions I and II are true

Q71. Statements: Q≥W>Y=E≤U<P>S≤T

Conclusions I: Y<P II: W>S

Q72. Statements: M≤B>H=A≥D<L=C

16

Conclusions I: H>L II: A≤C

Q73. Statements: K>M≤Z<E≥V=X<C

Conclusions I: E≥C II: V<M

Directions (74-78): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square table such that four persons sit at corner and the remaining four sit at the middle of the sides of the table but not necessarily in the same order. The persons sit at the corner face towards the center of the table and the persons sit at the middle of the side face away from the center of the table.

E sits second to the right of B. Two persons sit between B and H. F sits to the immediate right of H. The number of persons sits between H and D is same as the number of persons sits between D and G. D sits at the corner of the table. A sits adjacent to D.

Q74. Who among the following sits third to the left of C?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. D
  4. E
  5. H

Q75. How many persons sit between E and H when counts to the left of H?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. One
  4. None
  5. More than three

Q76. What is the position of C with respect to G?

  1. Second to the right
  2. Second to the left
  3. Immediate left
  4. Third to the right
  5. None of these

Q77. Which among the following statement(s) is/are not true?

  1. A sits to the immediate left of H
  2. Three persons sit between D and C
  3. E sits opposite to A
  4. B sits at the corner of the table
  5. All are true

Q78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Who among the following does not belong to the group?

17

  1. E
  2. F
  3. D
  4. A
  5. B

Directions (79-82): Study the following number series carefully and answer the questions given below:

9 8 4 6 3 7 2 9 4 1 5 2 5 9 1 4 3 6 9 1 8 2 9 4 5 7 6 1

Q79. How many prime numbers are in the above series each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by odd number?

  1. Three
  2. Five
  3. Four
  4. Six
  5. More than six

Q80. What is the sum of the odd numbers which are immediately followed by the number which is multiple of 3?

  1. 11
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 13
  5. 19

Q81. Which among the following number is 9th to the left of the number which is 7th from the right end?

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 9
  4. 5
  5. 8

Q82. How many even numbers are between the numbers which are 9th from the right end and 3rd from the left end?

  1. Six
  2. Five
  3. Four
  4. Three
  5. Two

Q83. If we form a four-letter meaningful word with 1st, 5th, 6th and 8thletter from the left end of the word ‘’CRITERIA” (Using each letter once), then what would be the third letter of that meaningful word? If no meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as X. If more than one meaningful word is formed then mark the answer as Z.

18

  1. C
  2. R
  3. A
  4. Z
  5. X

Directions (84-88): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven persons have different designations i.e. Vice Chancellor (VC), Director (DR), Director of nursing (DN), Head of Department (HOD), Principal, Professor and Assistant professor in a company. The order of seniority is the same as given above i.e. Vice Chancellor (VC) is the senior-most designation and Assistant professor is the junior-most designation.

At most two persons are senior to R. Two designations gap between R and V who is not a professor. One designation gap between P and T and both of them are senior to V. There are as many persons junior to P as senior to U. S is junior to Q.

Q84. How many persons are senior to Q?

  1. Three
  2. One
  3. Four
  4. Two
  5. None

Q85.Who among the following is designated as Principal?

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. T
  4. V
  5. S

Q86. The number of persons designated between R and U is same as the number of persons designated before .

  1. S
  2. V
  3. Q
  4. T
  5. None of these

Q87. Who among the following is three post junior to the one who is just senior to R?

19

  1. Q
  2. Director (DR)
  3. S
  4. Director of nursing (DN)
  5. Both Q and Director of nursing (DN)

Q88. If all the persons are arranged according to the alphabetical order from top to bottom then how many persons remain unchanged except (P)?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. None
  4. Three
  5. None of these

Directions (89-91): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

  1. If only conclusion I follows.
  2. If only conclusion II follows.
  3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
  4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
  5. If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q89. Statements: Some juice are mango. Only a few mango are orange.

Conclusions: I. Some Juice are not mango

II. All Orange being mango is a possibility

Q90. Statements: No Bell is Clock. All Bell is Ring.

Conclusions: I. Some Clock is Ring

II. No Ring is Clock

Q91. Statements: Only Car is Train. Some Ship are Car

Conclusions: I. Some Ship are not Train

II. All Car being Ship is a possibility

Direction (92-96): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

20

Seven persons H, J, K, L, M, N and O buy a product on different day one after another but not necessarily in the same order.

One person buys product between H and O. Two persons buy product between O and N. N buys product neither just before nor just after H. K buys product just before J and after O. L buys product two days before M.

Q92. How many persons buy product between L and K?

  1. More than four
  2. Three
  3. None
  4. Two
  5. One

Q93. The number of persons buy product between J and N is same as the number of persons buy product before .

  1. L
  2. M
  3. O
  4. H
  5. None of these

Q94. Which of the following statement is true?

    1. More than two persons buy product after K
    2. O buys product just after M
    3. Only one person buys product before H
      1. Both I and III are true
      2. Both II and III are true
      3. Only I is true
      4. Only II is true
      5. None is true

Q95. How many persons buy product after N?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. More than four
  4. Four
  5. None of these

Q96.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

21

  1. M-L
  2. L-H
  3. O-M
  4. J-N
  5. K-O

Direction (97-99): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

L has two daughters. C is the unmarried sister-in-law of H. K is the father of G. K is the only sibling of C. P is the spouse of L. W is the maternal uncle of H. L is the maternal grandmother of M who is sibling of G. S is the sister-in-law of K. G is the only grandson of J who is not female.

Q97. How many married couple are live in the family?

  1. Four
  2. One
  3. Three
  4. Two
  5. None of these

Q98. How is L related to K?

  1. Sister
  2. Niece
  3. Mother-in-law
  4. Sister-in-law
  5. Mother

Q99. Who is the sister-in-law of H?

  1. C
  2. M
  3. L
  4. Either C or M
  5. None of these

Q100. In the word ‘PAGINATE’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them

(both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabetical series?

  1. Four
  2. Two
  3. One
  4. Three
  5. More than four

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Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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