IBPS Clerk Mains 2024 Question Paper

Q1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved Tata Capital Limited’s (TCL) conversion from a non-banking finance company (NBFC)-core investment company (CIC) to which of the following types of companies? (August 2024)
  1. NBFC-microfinance company (MFC)
  2. NBFC-asset finance company (AFC)
  3. NBFC-investment credit company (ICC)
  4. NBFC-leasing finance company (LFC)
  5. NBFC-factoring company (FC)
Q2. Which of the following public sector insurance companies continue to be identified as Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) by IRDAI?
  1. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
  2. General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re)
  3. United India Insurance Company
  4. New India Assurance Company
    1. 1, 2, and 3 only
    2. 2, 3, and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, and 4 only
    4. 1 and 2 only
    5. 1, 3, and 4 only
Q3. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has incorporated NBSL as its wholly owned subsidiary. In this context, what does the letter ‘B’ stand for in NBSL? (August 2024)
  1. Bharat
  2. Banking
  3. Business
  4. Blockchain
  5. BHIM
Q4. Which organization has recently approved a $1.5-billion loan to help India accelerate its low-carbon energy development, focusing on green hydrogen, electrolysers, and renewable energy penetration? (June 2024)
  1. World Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. Asian Development Bank
  4. United Nations Development Programme
  5. European Investment Bank
Q5. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has increased the threshold for bulk fixed deposits for Scheduled Commercial Banks and Small Finance Banks to ₹3 crore. What was the previous threshold for bulk deposits before this revision?
  1. ₹1 crore
  2. ₹1.5 crore
  3. ₹2 crore
  4. ₹2.25 crore
  5. ₹2.5 crore
Q6. The Government of India signed a $200 million (about Rs 1,700 crore) loan with to

improve solid waste management and sanitation in 100 cities across eight states in the country. (July 2024)

  1. World Bank
  2. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
  3. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  4. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
  5. European Investment Bank (EIB)
Q7. The headquarters of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is located in which of the following cities?
  1. Washington D.C., USA
  2. Geneva, Switzerland
  3. Paris, France
  4. London, United Kingdom
  5. Brussels, Belgium
Q8. What was the theme for India’s first National Space Day, celebrated on August 23, 2024, to mark the successful landing of the Vikram Lander from Chandrayaan-3?
  1. Exploring the Lunar Surface: A Journey to the Moon and Beyond
  2. India’s Moon Mission: Celebrating New Frontiers in Space Exploration
  3. Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India’s Space Saga
  4. Space for National Progress: Advancing Technology and Innovation
  5. India’s Leap in Space Exploration: From Earth to the Moon
Q9. As per the recent announcement by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), what is the updated per transaction limit for UPI Lite? (October 2024)
  1. ₹500
  2. ₹1,000
  3. ₹2,000
  4. ₹5,000
  5. ₹10,000
Q10. According to the latest Global Competitiveness Ranking by IMD, which of the following countries is not ranked in the top 5 most competitive economies in the world in 2024?
  1. Singapore
  2. Switzerland
  3. Denmark
  4. Ireland
  5. China
Q11. Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd (TPSSL) has signed an agreement with which bank to provide financing for solar units to residential and corporate customers? (August 2024)
  1. HDFC Bank
  2. Axis Bank
  3. ICICI Bank
  4. State Bank of India
  5. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Q12. The Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) is an integral part of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) that allows individuals to link and manage their health records digitally. How many digits are present in the unique ABHA number assigned to individuals under this initiative?
  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16
  5. 18
Q13. Maramadi, also known as Kalappoottu or Pothottam, is a traditional bull race conducted in which Indian state after the harvest season?
  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Andhra Pradesh
  5. Maharashtra
Q14. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is headquartered in which state?
  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Haryana
  5. Karnataka
Q15. The ‘Karthumbi’ umbrella, highlighted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his ‘Mann Ki Baat’ program, is made by tribal women from which Indian state?
  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Andhra Pradesh
  5. Odisha
Q16. Which Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with US-based Petron Scientech to explore a joint venture for setting up a bio-ethylene plant in India? (August 2024)
  1. ONGC
  2. Indian Oil Corporation
  3. GAIL
  4. NTPC
  5. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
Q17. Which of the following Indian sportspersons is correctly matched with their respective sport for the Paris Olympic Games?
  1. Praveen Chitravel – Weightlifting
  2. Manika Batra – Archery
  3. Bhavani Devi – Badminton
  4. Jeswin Aldrin – Boxing
  5. Aman Sehrawat – Wrestling
Q18. What is the name of the dedicated mobile app offered by the Central Pension Accounting Office (CPAO) to simplify access to services for pensioners?
  1. Pension Sathi
  2. CPAO Connect
  3. Dirghayu
  4. Vriddh Ashray
  5. Pension Samriddhi
Q19. The BioE3 Policy, recently approved by the Union Cabinet, focuses on fostering high- performance biomanufacturing. Which of the following does not align with the core themes of the BioE3 Policy?
  1. Economy
  2. Environment
  3. Employment
  4. Energy
  5. None of the above
Q20. Under which of the following Acts does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) derive its authority to regulate the financial market in India?
  1. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
  2. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  3. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
  4. Securities Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956
  5. Companies Act, 2013
Q21. Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently presented four BHISHM Cubes to the Government of Ukraine. What is the capacity of each BHISHM Cube in terms of handling cases in emergency situations?
  1. Around 50 cases
  2. Around 100 cases
  3. Around 200 cases
  4. Around 300 cases
  5. Around 400 cases
Q22. What is the maximum income limit within a financial year for salaried resident individuals to be eligible to file the ITR 1 form for income tax returns in India?
  1. Rs 25 lakh
  2. Rs 50 lakh
  3. Rs 75 lakh
  4. Rs 1 crore
  5. Rs 1.5 crore
Q23. According to the revised guidelines by the RBI, deposit-taking housing finance companies (HFCs) are required to maintain liquid assets to the extent of what percentage of public deposits on an ongoing basis by January 1, 2025?
  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 13%
  4. 14%
  5. 15%
Q24. Among the Indian states, which one has the highest total area covered by wetlands, contributing significantly to biodiversity and ecosystem services?
  1. West Bengal
  2. Gujarat
  3. Assam
  4. Uttar Pradesh
  5. Madhya Pradesh
Q25. Which of the following countries is not among the top 5 zinc-producing countries in the world as of 2023?
  1. China
  2. Peru
  3. Australia
  4. India
  5. Russia
Q26. What is the new upper transaction limit for tax payments using the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) as per the National Payments Corporation of India’s recent update?
  1. ₹1 lakh
  2. ₹2 lakh
  3. ₹3 lakh
  4. ₹4 lakh
  5. ₹5 lakh
Q27. Where was the second-largest diamond ever discovered, a rough 2,492-carat stone, recently unearthed?
  1. South Africa
  2. Namibia
  3. Botswana
  4. Angola
  5. Sierra Leone
Q28. According to a study by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), what is the expected percentage increase in total private sector investment in the current financial year compared to the previous financial year? (August 2024)
  1. 34%
  2. 45%
  3. 54%
  4. 65%
  5. 70%
Q29. How many core promoter banks initially formed the consortium to establish the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?
  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 15
  5. 20
Q30. What is the maximum annual turnover limit for Micro Enterprises as per the classification guidelines for manufacturing and service enterprises?
  1. Rs. 1 crore
  2. Rs. 2 crore
  3. Rs. 3 crore
  4. Rs. 5 crore
  5. Rs. 10 crore
Q31. The National Strategy for Financial Education (NSFE) for the period 2020-2025 has been prepared by the National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) in consultation with which of the following financial sector regulators?
  1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  3. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  4. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
  5. All of the above
Q32. In the 4th edition of the Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems, which state was recognized as the "Best Performer" in Category B (States and UTs with population < 1 crore)?
  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Nagaland
  5. Goa
Q33. The maximum loan amount eligible for credit guarantee cover has been increased from INR

1.5 lakhs to INR 7.5 lakhs under the revamped Model Skill Loan Scheme. Under the revamped Model Skill Loan Scheme, what percentage of the loan amount is backed by a guarantee against default?

  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 75%
  4. 85%
  5. 90%
Q34. Which institute’s scientists developed a new computational model for detecting cervical dysplasia with an average accuracy of 98.02%? (July 2024)
  1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
  2. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR)
  3. Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST)
  4. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
  5. National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering
Q35. What is the allocation for the Nirbhaya Fund in the financial year 2024-25 as announced in the Union Budget?
  1. Rs 100 crore
  2. Rs 150 crore
  3. Rs 200 crore
  4. Rs 250 crore
  5. Rs 300 crore
Q36. In the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS), what is the age limit for the second applicant in a joint account?
  1. Above 50 years
  2. Above 55 years
  3. Above 60 years
  4. No age limit
  5. Above 65 years
Q37. What is the revised NPS (National Pension System) contribution limit for employers in the private sector as a percentage of an employee’s basic salary?
  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 14%
  5. 15%
Q38. Which organization is responsible for issuing the Certificate of Coverage (COC) to migrant Indian workers for social security schemes in SSA (Social Security Agreement) countries?
  1. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  2. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
  3. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
  4. Ministry of External Affairs
  5. Labour Welfare Board Top of Form
Q39. Under how many categories were the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2024 conferred?
  1. Three
  2. Four
  3. Five
  4. Six
  5. Seven
Q40. In August 2024, India successfully named three underwater geographical structures in the Indian Ocean: the Ashoka seamount, the Chandragupt ridge, and the _.
  1. Sagar Kanya seamount
  2. Raman ridge
  3. Panikkar ridge
  4. Kalpataru ridge
  5. Maurya ridge
Q41. What are the sources of revenue for the Consolidated Fund of India?
  1. Revenue from direct taxes (e.g., income tax and corporate tax)
  2. Revenue from indirect taxes (e.g., GST)
  3. Dividends and profits from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
  4. Earnings from government services
  5. Receipts from disinvestment, debt repayments, and loan recoveries
    1. 1, 2, and 3 only
    2. 2, 3, and 4 only
    3. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    5. All of the above
Q42. Who won the Golden Lotus (Swarna Kamal) award for Best Direction for a Hindi film at the 70th National Film Awards for the year 2022?
  1. Vivek Agnihotri
  2. Sooraj R. Barjatya
  3. R. Madhavan
  4. Sanjay Leela Bhansali
  5. Prashanth Neel
Q43. SEBI has directed BSE to pay a differential regulatory fee for past dues with interest, due to a change in fee calculation from premium turnover to notional value of annual turnover. At what interest rate must BSE pay on any unpaid, delayed, or short-paid amounts for these past dues?
  1. 10% per annum
  2. 12% per annum
  3. 15% per annum
  4. 18% per annum
  5. 20% per annum
Q44. How many foreign banks operating under the wholly owned subsidiary (WOS) model have been appointed as agency banks by the RBI as of 2023?
  1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three
  5. Five
Q45. Which of the following is not a term related to mutual funds?
  1. Net Asset Value (NAV)
  2. Systematic Investment Plan (SIP)
  3. Expense Ratio
  4. Moratorium Period
  5. Asset Under Management (AUM)
Q46. Under the Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) Scheme, banks provide finance up to at a

concessional interest rate of 4% per annum for eligible weaker sections.

  1. ₹10,000
  2. ₹12,000
  3. ₹15,000
  4. ₹18,000
  5. ₹20,000
Q47. Under the Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), what is the maximum amount of capital subsidy per beneficiary?
  1. Rs. 3 lakh
  2. Rs. 3.25 lakh
  3. Rs. 4 lakh
  4. Rs. 5 lakh
  5. Rs. 5.5 lakh
Q48. Agri-Clinics under the Agri Clinic and Agribusiness Centres (ACABC) Scheme provide support in which of the following areas?
  1. Soil health and plant protection
  2. Crop insurance and post-harvest technology
  3. Clinical services for animals and feed management
  4. Prices of various crops in the market
  5. All of the above
Q49. Shikhar Dhawan announced his retirement from all forms of cricket in August 2024. What remarkable record did he achieve on his Test debut?
  1. Highest score in a debut Test inning
  2. Most sixes in a debut match
  3. Fastest Test century on debut
  4. Most fours in a debut match
  5. Highest strike rate on debut
Q50. In May 2024, India agreed with which country to work towards an early conclusion of the Local Currency Settlement System Agreement for enabling trade in domestic currencies?
  1. South Africa
  2. Nigeria
  3. Brazil
  4. Russia
  5. Kenya
Directions (51-56): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Nuclear power and hydropower are crucial components of global low-carbon electricity generation, collectively supplying three-quarters of the world’s low-carbon energy. Over the last 50 years, nuclear power alone has prevented over 60 gigatonnes of CO2 emissions, equating to nearly two years’ worth of global energy-related emissions. Despite this significant contribution, nuclear power is facing a decline in advanced economies, where plants are closing, and new investments are scarce. This comes at a time when the world urgently needs more low-carbon energy sources to meet international climate goals.

The decline of nuclear power could have serious implications for both electricity security and the cost of energy. Projections suggest that nuclear power in advanced economies could drop by as much as two-thirds by 2040 if no significant actions are taken. This would hinder efforts to reduce global CO2 emissions, as outlined in the Paris Agreement and modeled in scenarios like the Sustainable Development Scenario, which calls for rapid cuts in emissions. Achieving these reductions without nuclear power would require massive investments in renewables and energy efficiency, further complicating an already challenging transition to a low-carbon economy.

This decline poses serious risks to global climate goals. Nuclear power provides a reliable and consistent source of low-carbon energy that complements intermittent renewable sources like solar and wind. Without it, the costs of transitioning to a fully sustainable energy system will likely increase, and progress in reducing emissions could slow significantly.

To address these concerns, the report suggests several key government actions. These include supporting the safe operation of existing nuclear plants, encouraging the construction of new nuclear facilities, and investing in advanced nuclear technologies. By taking these steps, countries can ensure that nuclear power remains a vital part of the global low-carbon energy mix.

Q51. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
    1. Nuclear power has played a major role in reducing global CO2 emissions over the past decades.
    2. The decline of nuclear power in advanced economies is primarily due to safety concerns.
    3. The cost of transitioning to a fully renewable energy system without nuclear power could rise significantly.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Only (II)
      3. Both (I) and (III)
      4. Only (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)
Q52. According to the passage, why is the decline of nuclear power a cause for concern?
  1. It poses a threat to the stability and security of global energy supplies.
  2. It could result in a rise in CO2 emissions, putting international climate goals at risk.
  3. Nuclear power is the only reliable source of low-carbon energy that can support global energy needs.
  4. The expenses associated with maintaining existing nuclear power plants are excessively high, contributing to the decline.
  5. The development and implementation of advanced nuclear technologies are not yet practical.
Q53. Which of the following actions is NOT suggested by the report to maintain nuclear power as part of the global energy mix?
  1. Promoting the safe operation and management of existing nuclear power plants.
  2. Allocating resources towards the development of advanced nuclear technologies.
  3. Giving priority to renewable energy sources over nuclear power in energy strategies.
  4. Supporting the construction of new nuclear power facilities.
  5. Making sure that nuclear power continues to play a role in the global low-carbon energy strategy.
Q54. Which of the following can be inferred as a consequence of removing nuclear power from the global energy mix?
  1. Solar and wind power would completely take over as dependable sources of energy, replacing nuclear power.
  2. Advanced economies would cease their investments in renewable energy technologies.
  3. The world would require much larger investments in renewable energy sources and improvements in energy efficiency.
  4. CO2 emissions would significantly rise, leaving no feasible alternatives for reducing emissions.
  5. Achieving the objectives of the Paris Agreement would become easier.
Q55. Which of the following is an incorrect interpretation of the phrase "which calls for rapid cuts in emissions" as used in the passage?
  1. The Sustainable Development Scenario demands immediate and significant reductions in CO2 emissions.
  2. Meeting the goals of the Paris Agreement requires accelerated efforts in cutting CO2 emissions.
  3. The scenario emphasizes swift actions for CO2 reduction to achieve climate goals.
  4. The passage implies that nuclear power helps meet the rapid emission reduction requirements.
  5. The phrase indicates that slow progress in emission reductions is acceptable.
Q56. What is one of the major consequences of the decline in nuclear power?
  1. A growing global dependence on nuclear energy, leading to a shift away from other energy sources and increasing the demand for nuclear power in the energy mix.
  2. Strengthened electricity security across various regions, resulting in improved stability and reliability of energy supplies despite the reduced reliance on nuclear power.
  3. Increased cost efficiency within the energy sector, allowing for more affordable energy production and distribution due to the decline in nuclear energy investments.
  4. Significant impacts on both electricity security and the overall cost of energy, as the decline of nuclear power undermines the stability of energy supplies and increases energy-related expenses.
  5. A higher dependence on fossil fuels in advanced economies, causing a shift back to more carbon- intensive energy sources to compensate for the decline of nuclear power.
Directions (57-60): In the questions below, a sentence is divided into several parts. Select the most appropriate sequence to rearrange the parts into a grammatically correct and contextually coherent sentence.

Q57. (A) of climate change and preserving

  1. is essential for mitigating the adverse effects
  2. and responsible resource management,
  3. including renewable energy usage, waste reduction,
  4. biodiversity for future generations
  5. adopting sustainable practices across industries,
    1. FDCBAE
    2. FDBCEA
    3. EBADAC
    4. EBACAD
    5. EBCFAD

Q58. (A) but also about fostering a culture of trust,

  1. encouraging open communication, and
  2. effective leadership within organizations is
  3. empowering team members to take
  4. ownership of their roles, ultimately driving collective success
  5. not only about making strategic decisions
    1. CDEBAF
    2. BDECFA
    3. CFABDE
    4. BDEAFC
    5. BCEDFA

Q59. (A) artificial intelligence has the potential to

  1. necessitate careful regulation and
  2. revolutionize industries, but its ethical implications,
  3. job displacement, bias, and data security,
  4. responsible technological development
  5. including concerns over
    1. ACDFEB
    2. ADCFEB
    3. ACFEDB
    4. ACFDBE
    5. ABCDEF

Q60. (A) and infrastructure strain, requiring

  1. livable environments for future populations
  2. such as housing shortages, pollution,
  3. as urbanization continues to reshape
  4. innovative planning to ensure sustainable,
  5. the global landscape, cities face growing challenges
    1. DFCAEB
    2. DECABF
    3. DACEBF
    4. FEDACB
    5. FADCEB
Directions (61-67): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into several parts. One of the parts is grammatically correct, while the others contain errors. Identify the incorrect part(s) from the sentence. If all parts are correct, select "no error" as the answer.

Q61. To understand personal finance, (A)/ including budgeting and investing,/ empower individuals to make (B)/ informed decisions and (C) /achieve long-term financial security. (D)

  1. A
  2. A-B
  3. C-D
  4. D
  5. No error

Q62. Not only the team achieved (A)/ remarkable success in the project, / but never before they had encountered (B) / such challenges that tested their (C)/ skills and determination to this extent. (D)

  1. A-D
  2. A-B
  3. C-D
  4. D
  5. No error

Q63. The rapidly growth in urban populations (A) / have led to increased demand (B) / for housing, infrastructure, and (C) / public services in many (D) / developing countries.

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. C-D
  4. D
  5. No error

Q64. If we would have known (A) / about the new policy changes, (B)

/ we had prepared (C) / more effectively/ for the upcoming challenges. (D)

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. A-C
  4. D
  5. No error

Q65. Neither the employees nor (A) / the manager were aware (B) / of the technical issue that (C) / cause the system to (D) / shut down unexpectedly.

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. A-D
  4. B-D
  5. No error

Q66. Every year, (A) / thousands of students applies (B) / for admission to prestigious (C) / universities around the world, (D) / hoping to secure a place in top programs.

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. A-D
  4. B
  5. No error

Q67. Each of the participants / were asked to provide (A) / feedback on the event, (B) / including their suggestions for improvement (C) / and their overall satisfaction with the experience. (D)

  1. A-B
  2. B-C
  3. A
  4. D-E
  5. No error
Directions (68-73): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Solar power is steadily reshaping the energy landscape, not just through its promise of sustainability, but by overcoming some of the long-standing technical barriers that once held it back. One of the most significant advancements in recent years lies in the rise of perovskite solar cells. Unlike conventional silicon-based panels, these cells are more affordable to produce and remarkably versatile, offering a faster route to mass adoption of solar energy. The reduced production costs promise to democratize clean energy access, potentially making solar a primary power source for both individuals and industries.

Efficiency, a crucial measure of solar technology’s viability, has also seen dramatic improvements. Photovoltaic (PV) panels, now surpassing 20% efficiency in standard conditions, can convert more sunlight into electricity than ever before. Cutting-edge research into tandem solar cells is even pushing efficiency above 25%, challenging old assumptions about solar’s limitations.

In addition to these technical leaps, solar power offers unparalleled environmental benefits. Unlike fossil fuel-based energy, solar power produces no harmful emissions during electricity generation, helping to combat climate change and significantly reducing global carbon emissions. This makes it an environmentally attractive alternative as countries seek to meet international climate goals.

Another challenge, historically associated with solar energy, was its intermittency—solar power generation stops when the sun isn’t shining. However, advances in battery storage systems are beginning to resolve this issue. These systems can store excess power generated during peak sunlight hours and release it during cloudy periods or at night, making solar energy more reliable.

Grid integration is another key development. Solar power is now more easily fed into national and regional grids, allowing for seamless distribution. This scalability ensures that solar energy can not only meet individual needs but also contribute to larger, more stable power systems, fostering a transition to a greener future without compromising energy availability.

Ultimately, solar power’s continued evolution positions it as a major force in the global energy shift, with its ecological, economic, and technical advantages driving the momentum forward.

Q68. According to the passage, which of the following statements best reflects how perovskite solar cells are different from conventional silicon-based solar panels?
  1. Perovskite solar cells are more efficient and environmentally friendly compared to silicon-based solar panels.
  2. Silicon-based solar panels are more reliable but less affordable compared to perovskite solar cells.
  3. Unlike silicon-based panels, perovskite cells are easier to integrate into national power grids, enhancing energy distribution.
  4. Perovskite solar cells are more cost-effective and versatile, offering a more accessible route to widespread solar energy adoption.
  5. The development of perovskite cells marks the first time solar panels have surpassed 25% efficiency.
Q69. Which of the following assumptions about the future of solar energy is most likely to be weakened if the technological advancements discussed in the passage fail to materialize?
    1. Solar energy will become the primary energy source for both individuals and industries.
    2. Global reliance on fossil fuels will decrease as solar technology becomes more affordable and efficient.
    3. Climate change goals will be met if solar power continues to evolve as expected.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (II)
      3. Only (III)
      4. Both (II) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)
Q70. What is the tone of the passage?
  1. Pessimistic
  2. Critical
  3. Optimistic
  4. Neutral
  5. Skeptical
Q71. Which of the following best reflects the significance of "grid integration" in the context of solar power as discussed in the passage?
  1. Grid integration enhances the efficiency of solar cells by improving energy distribution across regions.
  2. It allows solar energy to be more reliably used in tandem with fossil fuel-based energy systems.
  3. Grid integration enables solar power to seamlessly meet both small-scale and large-scale energy needs, making it a more stable power source.
  4. Grid integration reduces the environmental impact of solar power by ensuring optimal energy use and storage.
  5. It ensures that solar energy can be harnessed even in regions with lower sunlight exposure.
Q72. Identify the incorrect statements based on the passage.
    1. The environmental benefits of solar energy include zero emissions during production and installation.
    2. Solar power’s grid integration has reduced the need for advancements in battery storage systems.
    3. Perovskite solar cells have achieved higher efficiency levels than traditional photovoltaic panels.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (III)
      3. Only (II)
      4. Only (III)
      5. All (I) (II) (III)
Q73. Which of the following is an implied benefit of tandem solar cells in the passage?
  1. Tandem solar cells are easier to manufacture than conventional photovoltaic panels.
  2. Tandem solar cells increase solar energy’s reliability by storing excess energy during peak hours.
  3. Tandem solar cells help overcome the physical limitations previously associated with traditional solar technology.
  4. Tandem solar cells reduce solar power’s environmental footprint, making them more sustainable.
  5. Tandem solar cells are less expensive than silicon-based and perovskite solar cells.
Q74. Read the information and answer the given question.

John has consistently demonstrated a lack of punctuality, often arriving late to meetings and missing important deadlines, which has caused disruptions in the workflow of the team. Despite numerous reminders and opportunities to improve his time management skills, he continues to struggle with completing tasks on schedule, putting added pressure on his colleagues. Additionally, John has developed a reputation for being arrogant, dismissing constructive feedback from both peers and supervisors, and often undermining the efforts of others with an overconfident attitude. His reluctance to acknowledge these issues has created tension in the workplace, making it difficult for the team to collaborate effectively.

Based on the paragraph, what can be inferred about John’s work behavior?
  1. John frequently meets deadlines but struggles with maintaining a positive relationship with his team.
  2. John’s arrogance stems from the heavy workload he faces and the constant criticism he receives regarding his personal qualities.
  3. John acknowledges that he lacks necessary skills for the project and thus withdraws from it.
  4. John is not dependable for urgent projects due to his tardiness and arrogance.
  5. John is known for always providing constructive feedback to his peers.
Q75. Read the following passage and answer the given question.

Lily is a high school student who excels academically, consistently earning top grades in all her subjects. However, she often feels anxious about exams, believing that anything less than perfect marks is a failure. As a result, Lily spends long hours studying, often skipping social events and recreational activities. While her friends enjoy their weekends, Lily can usually be found at home reviewing her notes. Despite her academic success, she feels isolated and overwhelmed by the pressure to maintain her perfect record.

Based on the paragraph, what can be inferred about Lily’s academic habits and social life?
  1. Lily believes that only perfect grades will help her make friends and maintain a good social life.
  2. Lily prefers studying over socializing, often choosing to stay home and review her notes while her friends go out.
  3. Lily’s friends often avoid inviting her to social events because she is always too busy with her studies.
  4. Lily does not feel pressured by her academic performance and manages to enjoy her weekends with friends.
  5. Lily balances her academic success with a busy and enjoyable social life.
Directions (76-81): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Recent advancements in medical research have significantly improved the development of new treatments for various diseases. A primary focus has been the evolution of personalized medicine, an approach that tailors medical treatment to the individual characteristics of each patient. Researchers have been exploring how genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors influence the effectiveness of drugs. One prominent example is the use of targeted therapies in cancer treatment. Instead of using a one-size-fits-all approach, targeted therapies focus on specific molecular targets associated with cancer growth. Drugs like imatinib, used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), block certain proteins that promote the growth of cancer cells without harming normal cells. This precise targeting leads to fewer side effects and improved treatment outcomes.

Another area of research revolves around mRNA vaccines, a groundbreaking innovation in the field of immunology. Though mRNA vaccine technology has been studied for decades, it gained widespread attention during the COVID-19 pandemic. Researchers successfully developed vaccines like Pfizer- BioNTech’s mRNA vaccine in record time, which instructs the body’s cells to produce a protein that triggers an immune response. This method provides a safer and faster way to develop vaccines, as it avoids the traditional requirement of growing live viruses in laboratories. The success of these vaccines has spurred further research into using mRNA technology to treat other diseases, such as influenza, HIV, and certain cancers.

These breakthroughs in research, from personalized therapies to innovative vaccines, are transforming the landscape of medicine, offering more effective and individualized treatments while reducing potential side effects. The ongoing exploration of these fields holds promise for the future of healthcare.

Q76. Based on the passage, which of the following assumptions can be made about mRNA vaccines?
    1. mRNA vaccine technology has applications beyond COVID-19 treatment.
    2. mRNA vaccines can be developed more quickly than traditional vaccines.
    3. mRNA vaccines have proven to be more effective than all other vaccine types.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (II)
      3. Only (III)
      4. Both (I) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)
Q77. Identify the correct statement based on the passage.
  1. Imatinib is used to treat various forms of cancer by targeting cancer cells indiscriminately.
  2. Traditional vaccines are faster to develop than mRNA vaccines, which require growing live viruses.
  3. Personalized medicine primarily focuses on environmental factors while ignoring genetic influences.
  4. mRNA vaccines instruct cells to produce proteins that trigger an immune response.
  5. Targeted therapies cause significant harm to normal cells during cancer treatment.
Q78. What is the tone of the passage?
  1. Doubtful
  2. Hopeful
  3. Analytical
  4. Alarmist
  5. Pessimistic
Q79. Based on the passage, what is the most likely reason for the growing interest in mRNA vaccine technology beyond COVID-19?
  1. mRNA vaccines have proven to be more cost-effective than all other types of vaccines.
  2. mRNA technology offers a platform that can be adapted to develop treatments for various diseases quickly.
  3. The use of mRNA vaccines has eradicated the need for traditional vaccine development.
  4. mRNA vaccines offer permanent immunity to diseases, unlike other vaccines.
  5. Research into mRNA vaccines focuses solely on treating infectious diseases like influenza and HIV.
Q80. Which of the following can be inferred about the potential future challenges of personalized medicine based on the passage?
  1. Personalized medicine may become too expensive for widespread adoption due to its individualized approach.
  2. Personalized medicine is likely to cause more side effects because of its focus on targeting specific molecular profiles.
  3. The success of personalized medicine will depend heavily on integrating genetic research into medical treatments.
  4. Personalized medicine will soon replace all forms of traditional medicine, making standardized treatments obsolete.
  5. Personalized medicine is effective only in treating cancer and has limited applications in other fields of healthcare.
Q81. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage regarding advancements in medical research?
    1. Targeted therapies have reduced the harmful side effects associated with traditional cancer treatments.
    2. mRNA vaccine technology is gaining interest for its potential to treat diseases beyond infectious ones.
    3. Personalized medicine focuses exclusively on genetic factors when developing individualized treatments.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Both (I) and (II)
      3. Only (III)
      4. Both (II) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)
Directions (82-87): In the following questions, a paragraph is provided with a few highlighted words. Select the most appropriate option that can replace the highlighted word to ensure the paragraph is both grammatically and contextually accurate.

A recent psychological study on decision-making under uncertainty has endured (A) on the cognitive biases that influence human choices. The researchers focused on the prospect theory, which suggests that individuals are more likely to avoid losses than to pursue equivalent (B) gains, even when the risks are identical. Participants were asked to make decisions involving hypothetical financial backdrop(C), and the results confirmed a pronounced loss tactic (D) across various demographics. The study also revealed that framing effects, or how a problem is presented, significantly endorsed (E) participants’ risk tolerance. This research has broad implications for fields like fictious (F) economics, marketing, and public policy, as understanding these biases can improve strategies for influencing consumer behavior and decision-making processes.

Q82. Which of the following is most suitable to replace (A)?
  1. emphasis
  2. proposed
  3. shed light
  4. underscored
  5. No replacement required
Q83. Which of the following is most suitable to replace (B)?
  1. fabricated
  2. economic
  3. sustenance
  4. No replacement required
  5. commercial
Q84. Which of the following is most suitable to replace (C)?
  1. No replacement required
  2. scenarios
  3. situation (d)predicament

(e) context

Q85. Which of the following is most suitable to replace (D)?
  1. embrace
  2. No replacement required
  3. seizure
  4. aversion
  5. espousal
Q86. Which of the following is most suitable to replace (E)?
  1. No replacement required
  2. process
  3. coagulated
  4. replaced
  5. altered
Q87. Which of the following is most suitable to replace (F)?
  1. organizational
  2. behavioral
  3. No replacement required
  4. cohort
  5. realistic
Directions (88-89): In the following question, a sentence is presented with a blank. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank, ensuring that the sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually appropriate.

Q88. The workers showed great during the strike to demand better conditions.

  1. solitude
  2. apathy
  3. hostility
  4. solidarity
  5. detachment

Q89. The artist found inspiration for his new sculpture in his nightly .

  1. routine
  2. muse
  3. monotony
  4. impulse
  5. hesitation
Directions (90): In the paragraph below, some phrasal verbs may be incorrectly positioned. Identify the phrasal verbs that should be swapped to create a coherent paragraph.

Q90. As the project deadline approached, the team needed to pull together (i) their resources to ensure success. They began to carry on (ii) the final details, making sure nothing was overlooked. Everyone felt the pressure, but they were determined to go over (iii) despite the challenges. By the end of the day, they managed to wrap up (iv) their tasks, feeling accomplished and ready for the presentation.

  1. i-ii
  2. i-iv
  3. ii-iv
  4. ii-iii
  5. No interchange required

Directions (91-95): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it: Nine persons of a three-generation family are of different age (years). The persons are A, D, N, M, H, S, T, W and K but not related in the same order as given.

W is son-in-law of S who is parent of K’s spouse. K’s mother-in-law has only one daughter. A is spouse of S and paternal grandparent of N. K’s child is niece of T who has two children but D is not child of W. Number of males is one more than number of females. D and A are not of same gender.

To find the age of all persons, follow the instructions below:

Age of the youngest member is equal to the total number of persons in the family. Age of D’s spouse is three times the age of youngest member. T’s father age is twice of K’s age. Ratio between the age of T’s niece and D’s father is 2:9 respectively. Difference between the age of both the cousin of N is 6 years. W’s age is equal to the total age of A’s grandchildren. Difference between the age of A’s son-in-law and M’s mother is 1. Ratio between the age of K’s mother-in-law and S’s daughter is 9:5 respectively. D’s age is one more than the twice of M’s age but D is not youngest in his generation.

Q91. What is the total age of all the persons of 2nd generations?
  1. 102 years
  2. 119 years
  3. 117 years
  4. 129 years
  5. None of the above
Q92. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
    1. oldest person’s age is an odd number
    2. M is nephew of D
    3. T is older to K
      1. Only III
      2. Only I
      3. Both II and III
      4. Both I and II
      5. All I, II and III
Q93. Four of the following five are similar based on their age, who among the following is dissimilar to others?
  1. S’s son
  2. W’s father-in-law
  3. H’s grandmother
  4. T’s husband
  5. M’s sibling
Q94. Who among the following is 5th oldest in the family?
  1. K’s sister-in-law
  2. D’s wife
  3. W’s brother-in-law
  4. H’s mother
  5. T’s niece
Q95. What is the relation of the one who is 31 years old to the one who is 12 years old?
  1. Sister
  2. Father
  3. Nephew
  4. Niece
  5. None of the above
Directions (96-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Fourteen persons B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O sit around two tables—one circular (referred to as a rope-shaped table) inscribed within a square-shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the square table, while four sit in the middle of the sides. The persons who sit at corners face inside and the persons who sit on the middle of the sides of table face outside. Six persons sit at the circular rope-shaped table at a distance of multiples of 3 between them consecutively such as 3m, 6m, 9m and so on. The persons who sit on the circular rope shaped table face inside.

F sits 9m to the left of J in a circular shaped table. There is distance of 27m between J and G when counting from one of the sides from J. O sits third to the right of I. Two persons sit between O and N. L sits immediately to the right of C. N doesn’t sit on the middle of the sides of the table. G is an immediate neighbour M. There is a distance of 42m between G and B. There is a distance of more than 12m between B and R when counting from both sides of B. There is a distance of more than 15m between R and G when counting from both sides of R. H sits third to the left of D. E sits third to the left of L. D is not an immediate neighbour of O.

Q96. What is the position of D with respect of C?
  1. Fifth to the left
  2. Fifth to the right
  3. Sixth to the right
  4. Sixth to the left
  5. Second to the right
Q97. If E and R interchanged their places then who sits 45m away from E when counting from one of the sides from E?
  1. B
  2. F
  3. H
  4. R
  5. M
Q98. Which of the following pairs of persons are immediate neighbors?
  1. E and O
  2. R and G
  3. F and J
  4. B and M
  5. J and B
Q99. Four of the following five form a group based on their seating arrangement. Which one does not belong to this group?
  1. B
  2. O
  3. I
  4. N
  5. C
Q100. Which of the following statements is true?
    1. F sits at a distance of 9m from M when counting right of M.
    2. L sits at one of the corners of the square-shaped table.
    3. Four persons sit between H and C when counting from left of C.
      1. Only I
      2. Both I and II
      3. Both II and III
      4. Only III
      5. Only II
Directions (101-105): In each question, rows containing different elements are provided. To find out the resultant of a particular row, follow the given conditions:

Condition 1: If an even number is followed by an odd number, then the resultant must be the difference between the number.

Condition 2: If an odd number is followed by another odd prime number, then the sum of the resultants is added by 4.

Condition 3: If an odd number is followed by an even number, then the resultant must be the sum of both numbers.

Condition 4: If an even number is followed by an even number, then the resultant must be the be the difference between the number added by 2.

Condition 5: If an odd number is followed by another odd number (not prime), then the resultant must be product of both the number subtracted by 6.

Now, answer the following questions based on the above conditions:

Q101. What is the sum of the resultants of both rows?

25 17 36

54 22 77

  1. 70
  2. 55
  3. 67
  4. 53
  5. None of these
Q102. What is the square of the difference between the resultants of both rows?

45 34 92

13 9 78

  1. 324
  2. 441
  3. 579
  4. 676
  5. None of these
Q103. What will be the value of Y if the sum of resultant of both the rows is equal to 105?

31 46 13

63 17 Y

  1. 89
  2. 76
  3. 32
  4. 88
  5. 95
Q104. What will be the value of X and Z respectively if the difference between the resultants of both the rows is equal to 10?

12 37 X

Z 9 6

  1. 15, 18
  2. 14, 7
  3. 12, 3
  4. 22, 9
  5. None of these
Q105. What is the product of the resultants of both rows?

11 9 3

5 19 4

  1. 2800
  2. 2600
  3. 1072
  4. 2684
  5. None of these
Directions (106-109): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
  1. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
  2. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
  3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
  4. if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
  5. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q106. Five boxes- A, B, C, D and E are placed one above another in a stack but not necessarily in the same order such that the bottommost box is numbered as 1 and topmost box is numbered as 5. Which box is placed at third position?

Statement I: Box A is placed above box C and immediately below box E. More than two box is placed between box E and box B.

Statement II: Box B is placed immediately below box D and two boxes above box A. Box E is placed above Box A which is placed above box C.

Q107. Six persons have a meeting on six different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday, but not necessarily in the same order?

Statement I: P has a meeting on Wednesday and three days before U. As many persons have meeting before U as after R.

Statement II: Q has a meeting before T. V has a meeting before U. P has a meeting before V.

Q108. What is the code of “Are regular”?

Statement I: “regular classes scheduled” is coded as “mj kl pr”. “classes tomorrow are cancelled” is coded as “ui ml km mj”

Statement II: “regular exercise is important” is coded as “mo hg kl qw”. “regular meetings are important” is coded as “jk ml kl mo”

Q109. Five persons – A, B, C, D and E sit in a linear row and face north, but not necessarily in the same order then what is the position of E with respect to C?

Statement I: E sits second to the right of B. D sits second to the left of A. D its immediate right of C who sits second to the left of B.

Statement II: A and E are immediate neighbours. C sits third to the left of A.

Q110. Statement: In an effort to combat rising air pollution levels, several city governments are implementing policies that encourage the use of electric vehicles (EVs). These measures include offering tax incentives, developing more EV charging infrastructure, and restricting the use of traditional fuel- powered vehicles in certain areas. The goal is to promote cleaner transportation options and reduce the environmental impact caused by emissions from conventional vehicles.

Which of the following assumption is in line with the context of the statement?
  1. Electric vehicles are considered a cleaner alternative to traditional fuel-powered vehicles.
  2. Public awareness about the environmental benefits of electric vehicles is growing.
  3. The high cost of electric vehicles will discourage widespread adoption, even with tax incentives.
  4. The current EV charging infrastructure is insufficient to support a large-scale shift to electric vehicles.
  5. The electricity required to charge electric vehicles will come from renewable energy sources rather than fossil fuels.

Q111. Statement: Empowering women with vocational skills has become a key focus for several organizations, aiming to improve their livelihoods and economic independence. These initiatives are designed to provide women with the tools to start small businesses, increase their employment opportunities, and contribute more actively to their communities’ economic growth.

Which of the following statement is based on the statement?
    1. Many organizations believe that traditional roles limit women’s economic participation.
    2. Women who acquire new skills are likely to have better access to economic opportunities.
    3. Women can enhance their financial prospects through targeted skill development programs.
    4. Vocational training is the most effective way to boost a country’s overall economy.
      1. Both I and III
      2. Both I and IV
      3. Only II
      4. Both II and III
      5. Both II and IV
Directions (112-116): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:

There are eight employees A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H working in a company at different designations: CEO, Vice President (VP), Senior Manager (SM), Manager, Assistant Manager (AM), Junior Officer (JO), Clerk and Trainee. Each employee plays a different sport: Football, Cricket, Basketball, Hockey, Tennis, Badminton, Chess and Volleyball. The designations are ranked in order with CEO being the senior-most and Trainee being the junior-most. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

The one who plays Badminton is designated just junior to D. A and G don’t play Tennis and Hockey. Three designations are between C and the one who plays Basketball. E is two designations junior to the person who plays basketball. C and E are not designated as the junior-most person and senior person. The number of persons senior to E is two less than the number of persons junior to the person who plays Badminton. More than four persons are designated between D and H who plays Cricket. As many persons senior to the person who plays Cricket as junior to the person who plays Hockey. B doesn’t play Badminton. The one who plays Chess is two persons senior than G. E and G don’t play Football. The person designated as Assistant Manager, F and B don’t play Chess.

Q112. Which among the following games B plays and how many persons are junior to B respectively?
  1. Seven, Hockey
  2. Five, Hockey
  3. Seven, Basketball
  4. Five, Basketball
  5. None of these
Q113. Which of the following pairs is correct?
  1. A – Senior Manager
  2. G – Clerk
  3. C – Clerk
  4. C – Junior Officer
  5. E – Manager
Q114. Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the given information?
  1. D is the designated as the CEO and plays Basketball
  2. F is designated junior to E.
  3. The person designated as Manager plays Chess.
  4. Four designations are there between F and G.
  5. All are incorrect
Q115. Which among the following is the designation of the person who plays Volleyball?
  1. Clerk
  2. Junior Officer
  3. Senior Manager
  4. Vice President
  5. Assistant Manager
Q116. How many designations are there between A and the one who plays Football?
  1. As many persons designated junior to the person who plays Tennis
  2. As many persons designated senior to the person who plays Hockey
  3. As many persons designated between F and C
  4. Four
  5. As many persons designated between E and H
Q117. Seven boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are arranged one above the another, but not necessarily in the same order. There are four boxes between Box Q and Box V. Box V is placed immediately above Box P. There are two boxes placed between Box P and Box U. Box T is placed below Box U. Box R is placed above Box S which is not placed at fourth position from the bottom. Which box is placed four boxes below Box S?
  1. T
  2. Q
  3. P
  4. V
  5. None of these
Q118. If in the given word “LONGITUDE” letters that comes after M in English Alphabetical are changed with just preceding and if the letters that comes before M in English Alphabetical Series are changed with its just succeeding letter, then all the alphabets are arranged in reverse alphabetical order from left, then find the sum of place value of the letter which is third from the right end and left end in the new arrangement?
  1. 27
  2. 22
  3. 29
  4. 23
  5. 32

Q119. Statement: As global labor shortages, particularly in sectors like construction, persist, companies are increasingly turning to immersive training environments. These technologies aim to enhance workers’ skills efficiently, reduce onboarding time, and help close the gap between the demand for skilled labor and the available workforce.

Which of the following course of action is in-line with the statement?
    1. Focus on increasing tax incentives for large corporations to promote economic growth.
    2. Collaborate with tech providers to introduce VR-based simulations for on-site construction training.
    3. Implement immersive training environments to quickly upskill workers in sectors facing shortages.
      1. Only II
      2. Only I
      3. Both II and III
      4. Only III
      5. Both I and II
Q120. 6G connectivity is in development, with technologies like Reconfigurable Intelligent Surfaces (RIS) expected to optimize wireless communications and support emerging tech like autonomous vehicles. Which of the following courses of action should be taken to support this advancement?
        1. Encourage investment in RIS infrastructure to improve wireless communication efficiency and enable widespread adoption of 6G technology.
        2. Increase funding for traditional 5G networks to strengthen the current communications infrastructure instead of focusing on 6G.
        3. Implement policies to limit the use of autonomous vehicles until current 5G networks are more stable.
          1. Only II
          2. Only III
          3. Only I
          4. Both II and III
          5. Both I and II

Q121. Statement: To combat climate change, many countries are accelerating investments in renewable energy and sustainable technologies. A recent focus is on developing hydrogen fuel cells for clean energy production and storage, aiming to reduce reliance on fossil fuels and decrease greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the following courses of action is the most suitable to support the statement’s objective of advancing hydrogen fuel cell technology as a solution to climate change?

  1. Governments should provide tax incentives and grants to companies investing in hydrogen fuel cell technology to encourage faster adoption.
  2. Encourage immediate investments in nuclear energy plants, as they provide a steady power supply, which could help bridge current energy gaps.
  3. Limit the production of electric vehicles until a more efficient energy source than lithium-ion batteries are available.
  4. Increase subsidies for coal mining companies to keep energy prices low and ensure energy availability during the transition to renewable sources.
  5. Prioritize funding for urban transportation projects over renewable energy initiatives, focusing on improving road and rail infrastructure instead.
Directions (122-126): A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. Below is an example of input and its rearrangement:

Input: 97 wisdom 64 amplify 38 justice 71 clarity 25 mystery

Step I: 52 97 64 amplify 38 justice 71 clarity mystery modsiw

Step II: 83 52 97 64 amplify justice 71 clarity modsiw yretsym

Step III: 17 83 52 97 64 amplify clarity modsiw yretsym ecitsuj

Step IV: 46 17 83 52 97 amplify modsiw yretsym ecitsuj ytiralc

Step V: 79 46 17 83 52 64 modsiw yretsym ecitsuj ytiralc yfilpma

Based on the above example where Step V is the last step, find the arrangement for the below input and answer the related questions:

Input: 45 courage 86 understand 31 venture 32 meticulous 42 explore

Q122. Find the sum of the numbers which are second from the right end and third from left end in Step IV?
  1. 63
  2. 36
  3. 131
  4. 77
  5. None of these
Q123. Which element is eighth from the left end in Step III?
  1. 86
  2. erutnev
  3. suolucitem
  4. courage
  5. None of these
Q124. In which among the following step “86 42 explore erutnev” is present in same manner?
  1. Step I
  2. Step II
  3. Step IV
  4. Step III
  5. Step V
Q125. Which of the following element is second to the left of fourth element from right end in the last step?
  1. 54
  2. 23
  3. suolucitem
  4. erutnev
  5. 13
Q126. What is the difference between the place values of second letter of both second and fifth word from left end in step V?
  1. 12
  2. 11
  3. 10
  4. 14
  5. None of these
Q127. Seven persons – M, N, O, P, Q, R and S go to mall (but not necessarily in the same order) on seven different days of the week starting from Monday to Sunday. S goes to mall after P but immediately after O. More than three persons go to mall between Q and O. Q goes to mall immediately after M but M doesn’t go to the mall on Friday. Two person goes between P and N. N doesn’t go to the mall on Monday. Who among the following persons goes to the mall on Thursday?
  1. O
  2. P
  3. N
  4. M
  5. R
Directions (128-130): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In certain coding language, the directions are coded as per below conditions.

X@Y means – X is North of Y X%Y means – X is South of Y X#Y means – X is East of Y X$Y means – X is West of Y

@ and $ means the distance between the two points is either 4m or 8m.

% and # means the distance between the two points is either 3m or 7m.

XY > WZ Means the distance between point X and point Y is greater than that of point W and point Z. Example: A @ B and A $ B means A is north of B and A is west of B respectively and the distance between A and B is either 4m or 8m and so on.

Condition:

D#E, F%E, G@I, H#I, G$F, H@K, L#K, DE > KL, GI < GF, IH = KL

Q128. What is the direction of point E with respect to Point I?

  1. North-west
  2. South
  3. South-west
  4. North-east
  5. None of these
Q129. What is the shortest distance between Point I and Point K?
  1. 13m
  2. 8m
  3. 73m
  4. 113m
  5. Can’t be determined
Q130. How far (total distance) and in which direction is Point I with respect to Point F?
  1. 12m, North-east
  2. 10m, South-east
  3. 12m, South-west
  4. 8m, South
  5. None of these
Q131. Neural technology in headphones is advancing rapidly, enabling non-invasive brain control for tasks like web browsing and gaming. This innovation could transform how users interact with devices, offering hands-free control through brainwave sensors, enhancing convenience and accessibility.

Which of the following arguments is the strongest in support of the claim that neural technology in headphones will revolutionize user interaction with devices?

    1. Neural technology in headphones is interesting, but many new technologies don’t achieve mass adoption.
    2. Neural headphones allow hands-free control, improving convenience and accessibility for all users, especially those with mobility issues.
    3. While neural headphones are innovative, they might be expensive, limiting their use to a small group.
      1. Only I
      2. Only II
      3. Only III
      4. Both I and II
      5. Both II and III
Q132. Several global tech companies are investing heavily in the development of biodegradable electronics, aiming to address the growing issue of electronic waste, which poses significant environmental risks. What could be a possible reason for the increased focus on biodegradable electronics?
  1. There is a lack of demand for conventional technology.
  2. Consumers prefer products that break down quickly.
  3. Traditional electronics no longer meet industry standards.
  4. Companies want to produce cheaper products for a larger profit margin.
  5. Governments are enacting stricter rules on waste disposal, encouraging eco-friendly solutions.

Q133. If we use the following alphabets from the words given in the options below: The first vowel from the left end in the first word,

The third consonant from the right end in the second word,

The letter immediately after the vowel from the left end in the third word, The first consonant from the left end in the fourth word,

The letter immediately before vowel from the right end in the fifth word, then which of the following options can form at least two meaningful words?

  1. Plate, Sword, Crate, Fresh, Mend
  2. Brain, Scope, Misty, Drift, Hope
  3. Stain, Bread, Flash, Crack, Line
  4. Frost, Blind, Smoke, Patch, Leaf
  5. None of these
Directions (134-137): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Series 1: 1 & I @ 4 % D 9 ~ G 2 # K * 5 T $ 7 Q 3 P 6 J H 8 M S ^ Series 2: % T 5 K 7 B # 9 F Ψ G 3 P ! L 1 H * Q 8 S 4 V ^ R & J 6 Series 3: 7 F O # Q 9 B 3 L @ R 1 K $ A 8 Y Ψ H 4 G M @ N 2 % S

STEP I: The alphabets which are immediately succeeded by a symbol will change to its second succeeding letter

STEP II: The digits which are immediately preceded and immediately followed by a letter are changed with the letter of its place value according to English Alphabetical order.

STEP III: The alphabets which are immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a symbol are changed to its opposite letter according to English Alphabetic Series.

(Note: STEP II is applied after STEP I, STEP III is applied after STEP II)

Q134. What is the product of all the even digits which are immediately preceded by letters in step I of Series 3?

  1. 92
  2. 64
  3. 24
  4. 36
  5. None of these
Q135. How many letters are present in Step III of Series 3 which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
  1. Five
  2. Six
  3. Four
  4. Three
  5. Two
Q136. How many letters are immediately followed and immediately preceded by a symbol in Step II of Series I?
  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None
  5. Four
Q137. What is the sum of second number from the right end in Step III of all the series?
  1. 15
  2. 17
  3. 20
  4. 16
  5. 21

Q138. In the word ‘BIODEGRADABLE’, if all the consonants are replaced with their 4th succeeding letter and all the vowels are replaced with their next letter according to the alphabetical series, then remove the repeated letters. Now, find the multiplication of the numerical value of the remaining letters?

  1. 1452
  2. 1936
  3. 2420
  4. 1760
  5. None of these
Q139. To increase productivity, a company plans to implement flexible work hours for its employees, allowing them to choose their start and end times within a set range. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the given statement?
    1. Flexible work hours will help employees manage their work-life balance better, potentially increasing productivity.
    2. The company assumes that employees will use flexible hours responsibly without compromising work quality.
    3. Flexible work hours are always more effective than traditional fixed schedules in boosting employee productivity.
      1. Only III
      2. Only I
      3. Both II and III
      4. Both I and II
      5. All I, II and III
Q140. With the rise in cyber threats, a large financial institution plans to increase investment in advanced cybersecurity measures to protect customer data and maintain trust. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the given statement?
        1. Cyber threats are more concerning for financial institutions than for other industries.
        2. Customers will avoid doing business with the financial institution if they perceive their data as vulnerable.
        3. Advanced cybersecurity measures are essential for protecting sensitive financial data.
          1. Only I
          2. Only II
          3. Both I and III
          4. Only III
          5. All I, II and III
Directions (141-145): Read the following pie chart and table carefully and answer the questions given below. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of unsold toys (metallic and plastic) by four (A, B, C and D) different companies. The table shows the difference between the metallic and plastic toys sold by these four companies.

Note: (i) Total toys (metallic and plastic) manufactured by A, B, C and D are 40, 33, 25, and 38 respectively.

  1. Metallic sold are more than plastic toys sold by each company.
  2. Total toys manufactured = Total toys (metallic and plastic) sold + total toys unsold (metallic and plastic)

30%

10%

40%

20%

Unsold Toys = 30

A B C

D

Companies

Difference between the metallic and plastic toys sold

A

2

B

12

C

3

D

5

Q141. Find the difference between the total number of metallic toys sold by A and C together and the total number of unsold toys by B and D together.

(a) 11

(b) 14

(c) 12

(d) 15

(e) 18

Q142. The total number of toys manufactured by E is 40% more than that of C and the total toys sold by E is half of the total toys sold by C and D together. The total unsold toys by E is what percentage more or less than the total plastic toys sold by C?
  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 1.5%
  4. 2.5%
  5. 0%
Q143. Total number of unsold metallic toys by D is 10% of the total number of metallic toys sold by same company. Find the difference between the total number of plastic toys (sold and unsold) manufactured by D and the total number of toys sold by A.
  1. 12
  2. 11
  3. 10
  4. 14
  5. 13
Q144. Find the ratio of the total number of plastic toys sold by A and D together to the total number of toys unsold C and B together.
  1. 29:12
  2. 28:15
  3. 27:11
  4. 23:19
  5. 21:17
Q145. The average number of toys sold by C and the plastic toys sold by A is what percentage of the total metallic toys sold by D?
  1. 50%
  2. 75%
  3. 80%
  4. 66.67%
  5. None of these
Directions (146–148): Find the pattern of the series and answer the question given below.

Series: X, 168, 172, 145, Y, Z

Q146. Find the 8th term of the series.
  1. 271
  2. -324
  3. -271
  4. 324
  5. -218
Q147. Which of the following statement/s is are correct.
    1. X is greater than Y
    2. Z is square of even number
    3. X is less than Z
      1. All (i), (ii) & (iii)
      2. Both (ii) & (iii)
      3. Both (i) & (iii)
      4. Both (i) & (ii)
      5. Noe of the above
Q148. Find the Sum of the Y and Z.
  1. 182
  2. 167
  3. 197
  4. 198
  5. 209
Q149. A man invested Rs 5000 in a scheme which offers simple interest at 12% p.a. for ‘t’ years, and he invested an amount which is equals to the double of the interest received from the first scheme at 15% p.a. for 5 years in another scheme. If the amount received from the second scheme is Rs 6300, then find ‘t’
  1. 6
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. 3
Q150. 200-meter-long train A can cross a pole in 8 seconds, and train B can cross a 150-meter-long platform in 25 seconds. The difference between the lengths of trains A and B is 150 meters (length of train B > length of train A). Find the time taken by the train to cross each other while running in the in the opposite direction.
  1. 135/11 seconds
  2. 119/12 seconds
  3. 111/16 seconds
  4. 120/7 seconds
  5. 110/9 seconds
Directions (151-154): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the ratio of the number of pens to the number of sharpeners in three boxes and the difference between the probability of picking a pen and the probability of picking an eraser in these boxes. The table also shows the total number of sharpeners and erasers in these boxes.

Boxes

Pens:

Sharpeners

Difference between the probability of picking

a pen and the probability of picking an eraser

Total number of

sharpeners and erasers

A

4:3

2/9

10

B

3:4

3/17

11

C

3:2

1/11

13

Note: Number of pens in each box is more than the number of erasers.

Q151. Find the ratio between the total number of erasers in C and B together to the number of pens in A.
  1. 1:3
  2. 4:5
  3. 5:4
  4. 3:2
  5. 5:3
Q152. The number of sharpeners in A is P times that of erasers, and the number of pens in B is Q times that of erasers. Find which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
    1. P > Q
    2. 4P = 3Q
    3. Q : P = 4 : 3
      1. Both I & II
      2. All I, II & III
      3. Only II
      4. Both II & III
      5. Only I
Q153. Find the total number of sharpeners in all the boxes together.
  1. 22
  2. 14
  3. 18
  4. 15
  5. 20
Q154. If the average number of pens, sharpeners and erasers in A is X, then find which of the option is correct about X.
  1. X is an even number
  2. X is a perfect number
  3. Both (a) & (b)
  4. X > 8
  5. X is an odd number

Directions (155–157): Find the pattern of the series and answer the question given below. Series I: 8, 9, 17, 52, 25A+7, 1036, B

Q155. Find which of the statement/s is/are correct.
    1. B/113 + A > 67
    2. √𝐵 + 26 = 79
    3. A is completely divisible by first term of the series I.
      1. All (i), (ii) & (iii)
      2. Both (i) & (iii)
      3. Only (iii)
      4. Both (i) & (ii)
      5. None of the above
Q156. Find the value of B.
  1. 6615
  2. 6516
  3. 6115
  4. 5215
  5. 6215
Q157. A+5 is the first term of the series II, which follows the same pattern as series I, then find the fourth term of the series II.
  1. 27
  2. 82
  3. 327
  4. 1636
  5. 89
Directions (158-162): In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
  1. If x > y
  2. If x ≥ y
  3. If x < y
  4. If x ≤ y
  5. If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q158. I. 5×2 + 6x + 1= 0

II. 100y2 + 25y + 1 = 0

Q159. I. 2×2 – 17x + 21 = 0

II. y2 – 16y + 64 = 0

Q160. I. x2 -3x + 22 = 0

9

II. y = √√2401

625

Q161. I. x2 – 1 3 x + 21 = 0

10 50

II. y2 – 14 𝑦 + 4 = 0

5 5

Q162. I. 4×2 – 81 = (8-5)x2

II. y2 + 11y + 14 + 9y = -86

Q163. P can complete 50% of work in 4 days, and P & R started the work together. After two days, they left, and Q joined the work, and Q completed the remaining work in three days. If the time taken by Q to complete the whole work is four days more than that of P, then in how many days R alone can complete the whole work?
  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 2
  4. 7
  5. 10
Q164. Profit earned while selling two diamonds is the same as the cost price of four diamonds. If the ratio between the marked price and the selling price of the diamond are 6:5, respectively, then find the ratio of the marked price and the cost price of the diamond. (Note: The cost price, selling price, and marked price of each diamond are uniform.)
  1. 12:5
  2. 5:18
  3. 18:5
  4. 10:7
  5. 24:5
Q165. The time taken by a boat to cover D km downstream is 4 hours more than the time taken by the boat to cover D-116 km upstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the current is 9:2, respectively. If the time taken by the boat to cover 176 km downstream in 8 hours, then find the time taken by the boat to cover D-60 km upstream.
  1. 6.5 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 7.5 hours
  4. 8.4 hours
  5. 9 hours
Q166. Rs X is distributed amongst P, Q, R, S, and T. The total amount received by P and Q together is Rs 500 more than that of R, and the total amount received by R and S together is Rs 1600 more than that of T. If the total amount received by S is Rs 600 more than that of T and the ratio of the total amount received by R and T is 5:3, respectively, then find the value of X.
  1. 4600
  2. 4700
  3. 4500
  4. 3900
  5. 4300
Q167. A and B started a business with investments of Rs 520 and Rs (640+x) respectively. After six months, B withdrew Rs (2x – 40), and at the end of the year, the profit-sharing ratio of A to B is 26:3, respectively. Find x.
  1. 20
  2. Can’t be determined
  3. 45
  4. None of these
  5. 60
Q168. In X liters mixture of milk and water, quantity of water is 40%. If 20 liters mixture are taken out and X/2 liters of milk are added in the mixture, then the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture becomes 43:12 respectively. Find X.
  1. 40
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 50
  5. 60
Directions (169-174): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

Q169. 18.02 × 6.022 − 112.03 =?× 3.98

  1. 127
  2. 142
  3. 134
  4. 119
  5. 153

Q170. 11.02 × 1.992 + 87.98 ÷ √5 =?

  1. 67
  2. 98
  3. 88
  4. 73
  5. 54

Q171. √15 + √36.01 × √49.03 =?

  1. 59
  2. 19
  3. 23
  4. 41
  5. 46

1

Q172. 2.99 × 4.99 + 7.02 × 8.02 − 6264

  1. 109
  2. 29
  3. 43
  4. 66
  5. 88

Q173. 78.22 + 15.99 × 1.982 − 106.03 =?2

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 12
  4. 8
  5. 6

Q174. 81.03 ÷ 9.02 + 4.782 − 27.011 = √?

  1. 25
  2. 36
  3. 16
  4. 81
  5. 49
Directions (175-180): Read the following bar graph carefully and answer the questions given below. The bar graph shows the total number of people who votes in two different years in four different cities.

700

600

500

400

300

200

100

0

A

B

C

D

2013 2018

Q175. In 2013, 20% of the total number of people who vote in city C were invalid, and the ratio of total invalid votes in city D to city C was 7:4, respectively. Find the difference between the total number of people who vote in cities C and D which are valid votes.

  1. 456
  2. 452
  3. 432
  4. 413
  5. 409
Q176. In 2018, the ratio of total males to total females who vote in city A was 5:7, respectively. 3/8th of the total number of people who vote in city A were invalid. If the total number of females valid votes is 50% of the total number of valid votes, then find the difference between the total number of male valid and invalid votes in city A.
  1. 50
  2. 25
  3. 75
  4. 10
  5. 80
Q177. If the difference between the total number of people who vote in city B in 2018 and the total number of people who vote in 2013 in city D is X, then find which of the following statement/s is/are correct about X.
    1. X > 120
    2. X < 150
    3. X = Total number of people who votes in city A in 2018
      1. Both I & III
      2. All I, II & III
      3. Both I & II
      4. Only I
      5. None
Q178. The total number of people who vote in city E in 2013 was 25% more than the average number of people who votes in cities C and A in 2018. If 66.67% of the total number of people who vote in city E in 2013 are valid, then find the total number of invalid votes in city E in 2013.
  1. 135
  2. 120
  3. 125
  4. 150
  5. 105
Q179. The total number of people who vote in city A in 2020 is 3/5th of the total number of people who votes in 2013 in city D. If the ratio of males to females who vote in city A in 2020 is 5:4, respectively, then the total number of females who vote in city A in 2020 is what percentage of the total number of people who vote in 2018 in city D?
  1. 15%
  2. 12%
  3. 20%
  4. 24%
  5. 16%
Q180. Find the ratio of the difference between the total number of people who votes in cities D and A in 2013 and the average number of people who votes in cities in B and C in 2018.
  1. 11:19
  2. 13:20
  3. 12:23
  4. 17:21
  5. 10:17
Directions (181-182): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

The average of total items manufactured in 2021 and 2022 by A, B, and C is 1500 and 1650, respectively. 20% and 1/5th of the total items manufactured in 2021 and 2022, respectively, by B. Total items manufactured by C in 2021 are 33.33% more than that of B, and the total items manufactured by A in both years are 4000.

Q181. Find the difference between the total items manufactured by C in both years and the total items manufactured by A in 2022.
  1. 1960
  2. 2340
  3. 1450
  4. 1880
  5. 1920
Q182. Total items manufactured by B in 2022 is what percentage of the total items manufactured by C in 2021?
  1. 77.5%
  2. 82.5%
  3. 87.5%
  4. 66.67%
  5. 62.5%
Directions (183-187): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information about a company conducted interviews over three consecutive days i.e. Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday for various role.

Total candidates (males and females) interviewed on these three days are 420. The ratio of male candidates interviewed on Monday to the female candidates interviewed on Tuesday is 4:3, and the female candidates interviewed on Monday are 10 less than that on Tuesday. Total candidates (males and females) interviewed on Tuesday are 190, and male candidates interviewed on Wednesday are 20% more than the female candidates interviewed on Monday. The average number of male candidates interviewed on Monday is 90.

Q183. Find the ratio of the total female candidates interviewed on Wednesday to the total male candidates interviewed on Monday.
  1. 4:1
  2. 3:4
  3. 1:3
  4. 2:1
  5. 1:2
Q184. Total female candidates interviewed on Tuesday is what percentage more or less than the total candidates (males and females) interviewed on Wednesday?
  1. 25%
  2. 32.5%
  3. 40%
  4. 66.67%
  5. 33.33%
Q185. Find the difference between the male candidates interviewed on Wednesday and the female candidates interviewed on Monday.
  1. 8
  2. 5
  3. 14
  4. 10
  5. 25
Q186. 20% of the total male candidates interviewed on Tuesday are rejected and 35% of the female candidates interviewed on Tuesday are selected, then find the total candidates (males and females) who are selected on Tuesday.
  1. 145
  2. 110
  3. 125
  4. 130
  5. 100
Q187. Total candidates (males and females) interviewed on Monday is how many more or less than the total female candidate interviewed on all three days.
  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 30
  5. 40

Directions (188-190): The following questions are accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and

(III). You have to determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient /necessary to answer the questions.

Q188. What is speed of boat in still water?

  1. Speed of stream is two-third of speed of boat in still water
  2. The boat covers 20 km in 2 hours in downstream
  3. The boat covers 10 km in 5 hours in upstream.
    1. only statement II is sufficient
    2. Any two are sufficient
    3. I and II or III are sufficient
    4. Only statement III is sufficient
    5. None of these
Q189. What was the amount of profit earned?
      1. If no discount is given, profit would be 40%
      2. 30% discount is offered on marked price.
      3. Selling price is more than cost price by 40%.
        1. Only III
        2. All I, II and III
        3. Only II and III
        4. Cannot be answered even including all statement
        5. Only I and III
Q190. What is speed of train?
          1. The train crosses 300 m long platform in 45 seconds.
          2. The train crosses another stationary train of same length in 60 seconds.
          3. The train crosses a single pole in 30 seconds.

I and II or III

Only I

II and III both

Only III

I and II both

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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