IBPS Clerk 2023 Mains Questions Paper

Directions (1-5): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option “No replacement required” as the correct choice.

Q1. Our world’s surface is a jumble of 1 (puzzle) tectonic plates, with new ones emerging as others are pulled under. The ongoing cycle keeps our continents in motion and drives life on Earth. But what happens when a plate disappears into the planet’s interior?

The question has long puzzled scientists because conventional wisdom said that sinking tectonic plates must 2 (stabilize) intact to keep pulling on the portion behind it, but according to geophysical evidence, they are destroyed.

Now, in a study published in Nature, scientists say they’ve found an answer that reconciles the two stories: Plates are significantly 3 (improved) as they sink but not so much that they break apart entirely. The finding came after scientists put tectonic plates through a computer-generated gauntlet of destructive geologic forces. The model 4 (display) that as the plate enters the mantle, it bends abruptly downward, cracking its cold, brittle back. At the same time, the 5 (observing) changes the fine grain structure of the rock along its underbelly, leaving it weakened. Combined, the stresses pinch the plate along its weak points, leaving it mostly intact but segmented like a slinky snake.

friction
overlapped
jostling
dividing
No replacement required

Q2. Our world’s surface is a jumble of 1 (puzzle) tectonic plates, with new ones emerging as others are pulled under. The ongoing cycle keeps our continents in motion and drives life on Earth. But what happens when a plate disappears into the planet’s interior?

No replacement required
routed
makes
endured
remain

Q3. Our world’s surface is a jumble of 1 (puzzle) tectonic plates, with new ones emerging as others are pulled under. The ongoing cycle keeps our continents in motion and drives life on Earth. But what happens when a plate disappears into the planet’s interior?

weak
weakened
weaken
No replacement required
worse

Q4. Our world’s surface is a jumble of 1 (puzzle) tectonic plates, with new ones emerging as others are pulled under. The ongoing cycle keeps our continents in motion and drives life on Earth. But what happens when a plate disappears into the planet’s interior?

showed
demonstrate
No replacement required
captured
illustrate

Q5. Our world’s surface is a jumble of 1 (puzzle) tectonic plates, with new ones emerging as others are pulled under. The ongoing cycle keeps our continents in motion and drives life on Earth. But what happens when a plate disappears into the planet’s interior?

Now, in a study published in Nature, scientists say they’ve found an answer that reconciles the two stories:

Plates are significantly 3 (improved) as they sink but not so much that they break apart entirely.

The finding came after scientists put tectonic plates through a computer-generated gauntlet of destructive geologic forces. The model 4 (display) that as the plate enters the mantle, it bends abruptly downward, cracking its cold, brittle back. At the same time, the 5 (observing) changes the fine grain structure of the rock along its underbelly, leaving it weakened. Combined, the stresses pinch the plate along its weak points, leaving it mostly intact but segmented like a slinky snake.

colliding
bending
replacing
No replacement required
molding

Directions (6-9): Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph and answer the given questions.

1. The book is not as fascinating as Harry Potter.
2. However, it has sold copies than any other books in the past decade.
3. Even though this book does not feature magical elements, it around aspirations and wishes.

Q6. Which of the following sentence is the FIRST sentence in the sequence after rearrangement?

- 1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. Either (B) or (C)
  5. Either (A) or (B)

Q7. Which of the following sentence is the LAST sentence in the sequence after rearrangement?

A
B
C
Either (B) or (C)
Either (A) or (B)

Q8. Choose the most suitable word to fill in the statement (B).

few
many
more
much
little

Q9. Choose the most suitable word to fill in the statement (C).

aspire
conflicts
captures
revolves
understands

Directions (10-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If the sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, then choose option “No error” as your answer choice. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q10. The team of (A)/ researchers are conducting (B)/ experiments to (C)/ test their hypothesis. (D)

A
B
C
D
No error

Q11. Hardly had the sun set (A)/ then the nocturnal creatures emerged, (B)/ filling the night (C)/ with their calls and activities. (D)

A
B
C
D
No error

Q12. Each of the (A)/ students has (B)/submitted his/her (C)/ assignment on time. (D)

A
B
C
D
No error

Q13. Not only she did complete (A)/ the project ahead of schedule, (B)/ but also did so (C)/ with exceptional attention to detail. (D)

A
B
C
D
No error

Q14. After I had finished (A)/ my homework, (B)/ I had finally relaxed (C)/ and watched a movie. (D)

A
B
C
D
No error

Q15. Underneath the twinkling stars, (A)/ the weary traveler (B)/ found solace in the (C)/ soothing melodies of nature. (D)

A
B
C
D
No error

Directions (16-20): Given below are two statements in each question. Each statement has one blank which will be filled in with the same word. Select the combination of words that fits in appropriately in the blanks respectively to make both the sentences grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.

Q16.

1. The university offers a _____________ range of courses, allowing students to explore diverse academic disciplines.
2. Before writing the essay, she decided to find a relevant to add depth and insight to

her argument.

- 1. broad, quote
  2. significant, adoption
  3. limited, caption
  4. variant, alacrity
  5. accepted, exception

Q17.

- - 1. In the face of budget constraints, the team took a _______________ approach, focusing on cost- effective solutions.
    2. Despite facing numerous challenges, the community proved to be , rebuilding and

thriving after the natural disaster.

- - - 1. practical, outsourced
      2. plausible, moved
      3. pragmatic, resilient
      4. probable, entrench
      5. intolerable, competitive

Q18.

The task ahead was , requiring a combination of skill, determination, and strategic

planning.

The new medication helped the patient’s pain.

ambivalent, elevate

destructive, postpone

surreptitious, convey

impediment, relocate

formidable, alleviate

Q19.

The professor delivered a lecture on the impact of technology on society.

Solving the intricate puzzle required a series of logical steps and careful analysis.

profound, complex

crucial, sanguine

irrelevant, lucid

remarkable, capitulate

trivial, ineffable

Q20.

(I) After careful and consideration, the committee reached a consensus on the proposed

changes.

(II) The scientist studied the _____________ structure of the cell, unraveling the complexities that govern life at the microscopic level.

(a) analysis, sophisticated

(b) remorseful, complicated

(d) deliberate, intricate

(e) cautious, troubled

Q21. In the following question, three sentences are given, each containing a highlighted word. Among the provided alternatives, select the word that serves as the most suitable antonym for the highlighted words.

(A) Despite facing adversity, he chose to take the noble path, always prioritizing integrity and compassion in his actions.

(B) His generous offer to cover the expenses for the entire team’s training workshop was greatly appreciated.

(a) righteous

(b) mean

(d) lowest

(e) unkind

Q22. In the following question, three sentences are given, each containing a highlighted word.

Among the provided alternatives, select the word that serves as the most similar meaning for the highlighted word.

(A) The progress of the construction project stalled during the winter months due to adverse weather conditions.

(B) The negotiations between the parties stalled, leading to a temporary impasse.

(a) stayed

(b) vacation

(d) delay

(e) abandon

Directions (23-25): In each of the questions given below, a paragraph has been given which is either situational based or describes a scenario. Mark out the correct response that can be drawn regarding the person/ situation as your answer.

Q23. In her water-scarce village, young Aisha observed the daily struggle for this precious resource. Troubled by the hardships faced by the villagers, especially the children, due to the scarcity of water, Aisha decided to take matters into her own hands. Despite the challenges, she remained focused to find a solution. Through research and relentless effort, Aisha explored ways to bring water to her community. Her commitment and concern for the well-being of her fellow villagers, particularly the children, became the driving force behind her unwavering pursuit of a sustainable water source for the village.

Thus, we can say that Aisha is not

resilient
determined
empathetic
cunning
motivated

Q24. Rushing to the office, Mark realized he was late and had forgotten a crucial file for the day’s meeting. Distressed, he confided in his friend Sarah and swiftly decided to go back home to retrieve the document. Despite the initial setbacks, the meeting proceeded well. However, by the end of the day, the exhaustion from the morning’s chaos lingered, serving as a reminder of the unpredictable challenges workdays can bring.

Mark is .

optimist
frazzled
cautious
diligent
hard working

Q25. Eagerly anticipating her first solo exhibition, Amelia faced an unexpected challenge when a sudden rainstorm threatened her vibrant artworks with a leaky gallery roof. Distressed but determined, she swiftly relocated her paintings with the help of gallery staff. The showcase continued successfully, showcasing her artistic talent.

Amelia can be described as .

resilient
opportunistic
calculative
careless
struggler

Directions (26-28): In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select option ‘No rearrangement required’ as your choice.

Q26. The performance (A) melody of the violinist’s mesmerizing (B) had the power to attention (C) the entire audience, holding them in rapt captivate (D) throughout the concert.

ACBD
DBAC
BADC (d)BCAD

(e) No rearrangement required

Q27. Sarah’s meticulous (A) attention to detail was evident (B) in her beautifully crafted artwork, where every stroke and color choice precise (C) a deliberate and reflected (D) approach to her creative process.

ABDC
CBAD
ACBD
BCAD
No rearrangement required

Q28. With unwavering (A) courage, she aimed to conquer (B) the challenges that lay ahead (C) and achieve her ambitious (D) goals.

CABD
BACD
ADCB
CBAD
No rearrangement required

Directions (29-34): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. PARAGRAPH 1:

The U.S. pharmaceutical industry stands as a cornerstone in the nation’s healthcare system, renowned for its innovation and global impact. Home to major pharmaceutical companies, the sector covers a spectrum from drug discovery to distribution. "Big Pharma" giants lead in developing diverse medications, subject to stringent approval processes by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Beyond medical advancements, the industry significantly influences the country’s economy, contributing billions and offering extensive employment. Continuous research addresses healthcare challenges, solidifying the U.S. as a global innovation hub. Yet, challenges persist, including debates on drug pricing and accessibility. The industry, balancing innovation and public health, symbolizes a dynamic force in advancing medical science, exemplifying the U.S.’s pivotal role in global pharmaceutical leadership.

PARAGRAPH 2:

More than 80% of South African pharmaceutical manufacturing and distribution revenue is from the private sector. State purchases of pharmaceuticals are declining, and manufacturers’ margins are under pressure due to low regulated price increases for scheduled pharmaceuticals in a high inflation environment. In the retail sector, companies like Clicks and Dis-Chem have wholesale volume advantages and an ever-increasing footprint. Consumer spending patterns have forced consolidation in the retail sector, the growth of private label sales, growth in convenience formats, and diversification into new services and products. While almost 70% of pharmaceutical products used in South Africa are locally produced, almost all active pharmaceutical ingredients and various finished products are imported. South Africa has established the capacity and capabilities to formulate and supply products such as ARVs (to treat HIV) and radiopharmaceuticals. The pandemic highlighted the country’s limited access to critical vaccines, and a flurry of investments have been announced to localise vaccine raw material and finished dose manufacturing, although the sustainability of these initiatives is far from secure.

Q29. How do major pharmaceutical companies, often referred to as "Big Pharma," contribute to medical advancements?

By strictly following the rigorous approval procedures established by regulatory bodies like the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
These companies are at the forefront of undertaking initiatives, investing significantly in discovering new drugs and innovative treatments.
Big Pharma contributes funds and resources to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
Big Pharma collaborates with the FDA to guarantee the safety of drugs and generates funds to propel advancements in medical science.
Both (a) and (b)

Q30. Despite its contributions, what challenges does the U.S. pharmaceutical industry face?

1. The pharmaceutical industry faces challenges in building and maintaining public trust.
2. High costs of certain medications raise concerns about affordability.
3. Ensuring equitable access of essential medications
4. Competition from international pharmaceutical companies, along with the rise of generic drugs.
  1. Only (I) and (IV)
  2. Only (II) and (III)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Only (II), (III) and (I)
  5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Q31. What is the significance of the U.S.’s role in global pharmaceutical leadership, as highlighted in the passage?

- - 1. The industry’s adeptness in balancing innovation and public health.
    2. The industry’s dedication to advancing medical science, in conjunction with a focus on global public health
    3. The industry’s expansion contributes significantly to the global economy, creating abundant employment opportunities worldwide.
      1. Only (A)
      2. Both (B) and (C)
      3. Only (B)
      4. Only (C)
      5. Both (A) and (B)

Q32. What contributes to the challenge of maintaining profitable margins for pharmaceutical manufacturers?

Excessive government regulations leading to inflated production costs and reduced profit margins.
Minimal regulated price increases for scheduled drugs amid high inflation.
Fluctuating consumer demand and unpredictable market conditions impacting manufacturers’ profitability.
Limited access to raw materials and disruptions in the supply chain affecting the cost-effectiveness of pharmaceutical production.
Growing competition from new entrants and generic drug manufacturers, placing downward pressure on profit margins.

Q33. What has driven consolidation in the retail sector, according to the passage?

1. Sales of proprietary brands
2. Adoption of convenient formats
3. Patterns in consumer spending
4. Expansion into novel services and products
  1. Only (I) and (IV)
  2. Only (II) and (III)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Only (II), (III) and (I)
  5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Q34. In the context of the passage, which statement(s) is/are FALSE?

- - 1. State is buying fewer medicines, and the companies that make them are not making as much money.
    2. Big companies like Clicks and Dis-Chem have advantages because they trade in high volume.
    3. South Africa can make and supply special medicines like ARVs.
    4. Along with 70% of drugs, most active pharmaceutical ingredients are produced locally
      1. Only (IV)
      2. Only (II) and (III)
      3. Only (I) and (IV)
      4. Only (II), (III) and (I)
      5. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

Directions (35-40): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Living in a warm, dry, and healthy home is declared by the Chief Human Rights Commissioner of New Zealand, Paul Hunt, to be as fundamental a human right as the presumption of innocence or freedom of expression. However, an alarming "accountability deficit" in ensuring the upkeep of such homes poses a threat to New Zealand’s democratic ideals. Despite being ranked the second freest nation globally in 2021, issues arise from property being the primary source of wealth for New Zealanders, a widening equality gap, and the challenging living conditions for approximately 600,000 households residing in non-owned properties.

The disparity is evident in the poor state of many rental homes, with an estimated 30% to 50% of the rental stock being in suboptimal condition. To address this, the government introduced healthy homes standards in 2019, aiming to make rental properties warmer and drier. Landlords were given deadlines to comply, with significant penalties for non-compliance, reflecting a shift in the system from an unregulated environment to one with minimum standards. However, issues of accountability persist, with the compliance and investigations unit facing limitations in overseeing the vast rental property landscape.

The Human Rights Commission recommends urgent establishment of independent accountability mechanisms, such as a housing ombudsman or a statutory body, to rectify the current oversight gaps. The report emphasizes the need for effective, nimble, and equitable accountability grounded in Te Tiriti o Waitangi, benefiting both renters and homeowners. With tenants currently shouldering much of the responsibility for enforcing their rights, there is a call for a more balanced approach to ensure that New Zealand’s housing standards align with democratic principles, the human rights of all citizens.

Q35. The passage discusses a dichotomy between the country’s ranking and the challenges it confronts. What is this dichotomy referring to?

A harmonious relationship between New Zealand’s global freedom ranking and the housing challenges it encounters.
New Zealand’s challenges being solely related to its global freedom ranking, with high impact from property wealth or living conditions.
Despite stringent policies aimed at ensuring healthy homes, rental properties continue to be in suboptimal conditions.
New Zealand’s high global freedom ranking and the challenges it faces with property wealth, inequality, and living conditions.
None of these

Q36. Before the introduction of deadlines and penalties, what can be stated about the regulatory environment for landlord?

Landlords operated in an environment marked by a deficiency of regulation or established standards.
Charges were imposed on landlords for providing subpar housing conditions to their tenants before the introduction of deadlines and penalties.
Landlords resisted the strict regulations implemented by the government in the pre-penalty era.
The regulatory framework did not foster compliance among landlords; instead, it encouraged non- compliance.
The regulatory environment for landlords was stringent, with clearly defined regulations and standards in place.

Q37. According to the passage, what is the meaning of “accountability deficit”?

The absence of state responsibility to appoint a housing ombudsman for dispute resolution.
The joint responsibility of individuals and the state to formulate clear policies for ensuring the well- being of homes.
Insufficiency in holding individuals or entities accountable for ensuring the well-being of homes and enforcing housing standards.
Both (a) and (d)
Uncertainty regarding the statutory body’s liability for rules and regulations concerning the provision of healthy homes.

Q38. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

protecting
rejuvenating
reviving
capturing
enlightening

Q39. In the context of the passage, which statement(s) is/are TRUE?

New Zealand was ranked the freest nation globally in 2021.
In response to the suboptimal conditions of rental properties, the government introduced healthy homes standards in 2021.
The compliance and investigations unit has successfully addressed accountability issues in overseeing the rental property landscape.
The Human Rights Commission recommends the establishment of an independent housing ombudsman
Currently, tenants bear only a little portion of the responsibility for enforcing their rights within the housing sector.

Q40. Choose the most suitable word that can replace the highlighted word “shouldering” in the

passage.

anticipating
overtaking
perplexing
pushing
diverting

Directions (41-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-

There are 12 persons who born in 24 different months of 2 years i.e.,1998 and 1999. Only one person was born in a month in each year. The months are January to December. G was born in a month of 30 days after June and in 1999. B was born in November. B was born before G. There is a gap of 5 months between L and

M. Both L and M were born in same year. There is a gap of 2 months between the person who born in June 1999 and M and both were born in same year. P was born immediately after L in the same year. J was born in March 1998 . As many months are there between the month in which Q and U were born is same as the number of months before J. Q, U and J were born in same year. U was born after Q. S is elder to Z. S and Z were born in same month but in different years. There are three months between U and S. S was not born in a month of 30 days, but not in August. H and B were born in immediate months but in different years. H is not the youngest. K is younger to L but older to Z. The number of months between B and U is same as between L and K. K and S were born in different years.

Q41. In which month G was born?

August
September
October
November
December

Q42. Who was born two months after L in the year 1998?

Q43. In which month and year Z was born?

June 1998
July 1999
August 1998
December 1999
October 1998

Q44. How many months are there between J and U?

Q45. Who is the youngest among H, L, S and K?

H
L
K
Cannot be determined
S

Directions (46-50): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:

Thirteen houses are situated in a row and they are numbered 1 to 13 from west to east respectively. Nine persons live nine houses (one in each) and four houses are vacant in the row. Vacant houses are not adjacent to each other. All persons face north.

P lives in 7th house. Four houses are there between N and T. Number of houses to the right of R is one less than the number of houses to the left of M. R and Y live in adjacent houses. One person lives between M and J where J does not live at extreme ends. Three houses are in between M and P. N lives just right of J but not in adjacent house. Immediate neighboring houses of M are not vacant. T lives third to the right of S and to the left of K. S does not live at extreme end.

Q46. What is the position of S with respect to R?

Third to the left
Second to the left
Immediate left
Sixth to the left
Second to the right

Q47. How many persons live between Y and N?

Five
Six
Seven
Three
Four

Q48. Which of the following person does not have any adjacent vacant house?

Q49. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. K does not live in house number 12
2. Even number of persons live between J and R
3. Three houses are in between Y and P
  1. Only II
  2. Only I
  3. Only II and III
  4. All I, II and III
  5. Only I and III

Q50. What is the house number of that vacant house which is adjacent to T’s house?

None of these
5
4
6
3

Directions (51-53): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-

In alphabetical series A-Z each letter except vowels and consonants (M, N and P) is assigned a different number starting from 1 (for ex- B is coded as 1, C-2, D-3) and again those numbers get repeated (for ex- Q- 1, R -2 and so on). Also, each consonant (M, N and P) is coded with different symbol viz. #, * and $ respectively.

Conditions:

1. If the number of letters in the word is even then first vowel from left end will be coded as + If the number of letters in the word is odd then first vowel from left end will be coded as @.
2. If the third letter from the left end of the word is vowel, then use A.
3. If word ends with the letters M, N and P then the code of first vowel will the code of that particular consonant (M, N and P).
4. If there are two consonants after any vowel then the code of that vowel will be &.
5. If there are more than 3 vowels in a word then the code of all the vowels will be B.
6. If there is no condition apply on vowel then particular vowel will be coded as >.

(Condition is applied I – VI in the same order. If more than one condition is applied then condition I is applied first followed by the II and so on..)

Q51. What is the code of “Palm Tree”?

- 1. $&3# 12A>
  2. $+33 12AA
  3. 1+33 33A>
  4. #+3$ A12>
  5. None of these

Q52. What is the code of “Tourist Star”?

1>A2&31 12A3
1@>2&31 31A2
1@A2&31 31A2
1>A3&21 31A2
None of these

Q53. What is the code of “Data Breach”?

3+2>12$$2A
3+3>12$$&2
3+1> 32##23
3+1>12A&23
None of these

Directions (54-56): In each question given below, some statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. You have to find out, which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statement, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q54. Statements:

Only break is ice

Only a few break is cake Some cake is milk

All milk is water

Some water is not bridge

Conclusions:

1. No bridge being ice is a possibility
2. Some break can never be milk
3. All milk being cake is a possibility
  1. Both II and III follows
  2. Both I and II follow
  3. None follows
  4. Only III follow
  5. Both I and III follow

Q55. Statements:

All lyrics are sound No music is lyrics

Only a few instruments are music Only a few instruments are pleasant Conclusions:

- - 1. All sound being music is not a possibility
    2. Some music is not pleasant
    3. All pleasant can be lyrics
      1. Either II or III follows
      2. Both I and II follow
      3. None follows
      4. Only III follow
      5. Both I and III follow

Q56. Statements:

All planets are universe Only a few galaxy is universe All earth is world

Only a few earth is galaxy

Conclusions:

All world can never galaxy

Some planets being earth is a possibility

No planets are world

Either II or III follows

Only I and II follow

None follows

Only III follow

Only I and III follow

Directions (57-61): Study the following information and answer the questions below:

Ten persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are living in the five-floor building such that the ground floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the top most floor is numbered as 5 but not necessarily in the same order. Each floor has 2 flats in it i.e., flat A and flat B. Flat A of floor 2 is immediately above flat A of floor 1 and immediately below flat A of Floor 3 and so on. In the same way, Flat B of Floor 2 is immediately above flat B of floor 1 and immediately below flat B of Floor 3 and so on. Flat A is exactly to the west of Flat B.

Two floors gap between P and X and both live in different named flats. P lives on an even numbered floor. As many floors are above X as below W. V lives on an adjacent floor of W. Y lives to the south west of V and lives on an even numbered floor. Both Y and W live in the same named flats. S lives above T and below R. U lives on an odd numbered floor. No one lives to the west of T. S lives above Q. W and S live in different named flats.

Q57. How many floor(s) gaps is/are between S and X?

Three
Either two or three
One
Either one or two
Two

Q58.On which of the following floor and flat does Q live?

5th floor, flat B
4th floor, flat A
2nd floor, flat B
3rd floor, flat A
None of these

Q59. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

1. P and R live on the same floor
2. Q lives just below S’s flat
3. R lives in flat B
  1. Both I and II
  2. Both II and III
  3. Only I
  4. Both I and III
  5. Only III

Q60. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Who among the following person does not belong to the group?

Q61. How many persons live to the south west of V?

One
Two
Four
None
Three

Q62. In the word ‘DECARBONATE’ following conditions are applied:

1. All the letters which come before K in alphabetical order are changed to their immediate next letter and the letters which come after K in alphabetical order are changed to their 2nd previous consonant.
2. All the repeated letters are removed.
3. Remaining letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right.

(condition II is applied after condition I and condition III is applied after condition II)

Now find how many letters (according to alphabetical order) are there between 2nd letter from left end and 5th letter from right end in the new word formed after applying the conditions?

- 1. None
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three
  5. More than three

Directions (63-65): Italian super – luxury sports car manufacturer Lamborghini has spread its wings in India. And it, has just opened a dealership in Bengaluru, the IT capital of the country. At a price tag of over Rs. 1 Crore, in addition high import duty barriers. Who will buy a Lamborghini car? Rather, what gives the Italian car maker the confidence to not only drive into India but also expand its presence? If super – luxury brand like Lamborghini is sensing an unfolding big opportunity in a New India, other traditional global luxury car makers have turned very ambitious with new launches.

Q63. Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?

As IT capital, some of the Bengaluru person has the potential to buy Lamborghini car.
People of India will reject other companies’ car and will attracted towards sports car of Lamborghini.
After India, Lamborghini will plan to launch in neighbouring countries of India.
Both (a) and (c)
Both (b) and (c)

Q64. Which statement negates the Italian car maker confidence?

Two years back, BMW has launched their premium cars in India, and they faced huge loss.
Before India, Lamborghini had launched their car in France, and they make a 800-million-dollar profit annually.
After launch, there is a huge demand and query by Indian people.
Both (a) and (c)
Both (b) and (c)

Q65. What may be the assumption of Lamborghini company to launch and expand their product in India?

1. The luxury car is a stipulated requirement or thriving people as it has been seen in Delhi, Mumbai and Bengaluru.
2. The ability to afford high import duties by Indians who are living in rich metropolitan areas.
3. The inclination of moneyed people towards sports car will potentially grow.
  1. Only I and III
  2. Only II
  3. Only I and II
  4. Only III
  5. Only II and III

Directions (66-68): Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and given answer:

Q66. In a three-generation family of six members, how is U related to M?

- - 1. H is child of U. B is only daughter of U’s spouse. L is sister-in-law of B. M is child of L. R is the grandfather of B’s niece.
    2. U is sibling of H. L is parent of M. R is mother of H. M is brother-in-law of U. B is a married male.
      1. Only statement I is sufficient
      2. Only statement II is sufficient
      3. Either statement I or II is sufficient
      4. Neither statement I nor II is sufficient
      5. Both statement I and II is sufficient

Q67. Seven persons go to a clinic on different days of week starting from Tuesday. Which person goes just after the one who goes on Friday?

Three persons go between G and D. B goes just before G. B does not go on Saturday and Sunday. F goes two days after A but not on Monday. E goes before C but after Wednesday.

More than three persons go before D. Two persons go between D and A. F does not go on Tuesday. Equal number of persons go before C and after F. E goes just before B. G goes after B but not on Sunday.

Only statement I is sufficient

Only statement II is sufficient

Either statement I or II is sufficient

Neither statement I nor II is sufficient

Both statement I and II is sufficient

Q68. Six persons sit around a circular table facing inside. What is the position of M with respect to the one who sits immediate left of D?

One person sits between N and K. D and N do not sit adjacent to each other.

L sits second to the left of P. M does not face the immediate neighbors of P. Equal number of persons do not sit between K and P (from the both side).

Only statement I is sufficient

Only statement II is sufficient

Either statement I or II is sufficient

Neither statement I nor II is sufficient

Both statement I and II is sufficient

Q69. B is 7m to the north of C. G is 4m to the south of E. I is 11m to the west of G. D is 3m to the east of H. F is 12m to the east of B. C is 6m to the west of E. D is 9m to the south of I. F is 10m to the north of A. Find the odd one out?

Q70. Statement: Use for 2 weeks, your face will get pimple free. It is 100% tested and there is no side effect-Advertisement by a face wash company Y.

Assumption:

1. Pimple on face is common people issue.
2. People believe on tested products.
3. Stock of face wash by company will be sold in a week.
  1. Only I and III
  2. Only II and III
  3. Only II
  4. Only I and II
  5. All of three

Directions (71-75): Study the following information and answer the questions below:

There are three stacks i.e. X, Y and Z from west to east respectively, which contains different number of boxes placed one above another. Each box has same heights.

Box U is kept to the just north-west of box E. Box Q is kept to the east of box E. At most two boxes are kept below box E. Three boxes are kept between box Q and the box which is kept to the east of box A in the same stack. At least two boxes are kept between box B and box E in the same stack. Box B is kept to the south- east of box A. Five boxes are kept between box A and box F in the same stack. Box F is kept to the west of box T which is kept just below box G in the same stack. Box H is kept to the south east of box E and to the just east of box G. As many boxes are kept between box A and box F is same as between box D and box T in the same stack. Box P is kept to the west of box R and kept above box S. No box is kept above box N which is kept to the east of box D. Box S is kept to the west of box Q. Box P is kept just below Box A.

Q71. How many known boxes are kept in the stack Y?

Three
Four
Five
Two
Either two or three

Q72. Which among the following boxes are kept to the south-west of box N?

Box U
Box G
Box H
Box T
All except box H

Q73. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

1. Box H is kept below box U
2. Box D and box S are kept in different stacks
3. Odd number of boxes are kept to the east of box A
  1. Only I
  2. Both I and II
  3. Only II
  4. Both II and III
  5. All I, II and III

Q74. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

Box N
Box R
The box which is kept to the east of box E
Box F
Box H

Q75. How many total boxes are Kept between the box B and the box which is kept to the just east of box F in the same stack?

Four
Three
Five
Six
Two

Directions (76-78): After 8 phases of election in Bengal, on 2nd May the ‘khela’ becomes over. TMC lead by Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee has got success to clean sweep Bengal election despite of strong opposition heavyweight Bhartiya Janata Party. Top Central Ministers and chief ministers of BJP ruled states also participated in rallies. While seated in a wheelchair Didi with her injured left foot, rallies could not have been easy. But Didi scored! And her supporters and TMC cheered.

Q76. What may be the reason for defeat of heavyweight Bhartiya Janata Party?

BJP did not get success to connect with common people and their basic needs.
Rallies by Top central Minister and Chief ministers backfires the promotion strategy of BJP.
Promotion by Didi with her injured left foot, seated on wheelchair help in gaining sympathy of Bengal people.
Both (a) and (b)
Both (a) and (c)

Q77. What can be assumed from the given statement of election result?

Rallies by top ministers attract the voters to vote towards the party.
Election commission takes a long duration of time to conduct election in Bengal.
After Bengal, there will be election in two more states.
Both (a) and (b)
Both (b) and (c)

Q78. I. TMC Party workers starts celebration and there is some news of violence between BJP & TMC workers.

II. Out of 292 seats, TMC has marked a major victory by winning 225 seats and BJP has not touched the triple figure.

Give answer

If Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.
If Statement II is the cause and Statement, I is its effect.
If both the Statements I and II are independent causes.
If both the Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
If both the Statement I and II are effects of some common causes.

Directions (79-81): In the following questions, the symbols %, #, @, $, and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

P&Q means P is equal to Q

P%Q means P is either less than or equal to Q P$Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q P#Q means P is neither less than nor equal to Q

P@Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

In each question, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the given conclusions below, is are definitely true as per the statement.

Q79. Statements:

D @ B % T, E # N @ M, T & R % M

Conclusions:

1. R # D
2. T @ M
3. B % N
  1. Only II is true
  2. Only I or III is true
  3. Only I is true
  4. Only II and III is true
  5. None is true

Q80. Statements:

C $ L # P & O, M $ S # P, B $ V % S

Conclusions:

- - 1. P @ B
    2. M # O
    3. C $ V
      1. Only II is true
      2. Only III is true
      3. None is true
      4. Only I and II is true
      5. Either II or III is true

Q81. Statements:

A $ H $ S, T & N # Z @ U, H % T @ E

Conclusions:

Z @ E

N $ S

A # Z

Only II is true

All I, II and III are true

Only I is true

Only I and II is true

Only I and III is true

Directions (82-85): There are three rows given and to find out the resultant of a particular row we need to follow the following Conditions: –

If an even number is followed by a perfect square number then the resultant will be the positive difference between both the numbers.
If an odd number is followed by an even number (not prime) which is not a perfect square number then the resultant will be addition of both the numbers.
If an even number is followed by an even number which is not a perfect square then the resultant will be the addition of positive difference between the two numbers with the greater number.
If an odd number is followed by an odd prime number then the resultant will be the positive difference between both the numbers.
If an odd number is followed by an even prime number then the resultant will be average of the two numbers.
If an even number is followed by an odd number which is not a perfect square number then the resultant will be the twice of the positive difference of the two numbers.
If an odd number is followed by an odd number (not prime) then the resultant will be positive difference between both the numbers.

Q82. What is the resultant of row 1, if X is the resultant of row 2 and Y is the resultant of row3?

(a) 84

(b) 86

(d) 65

(e) 62

Q83. What is the difference of resultant of row 2 and the sum of the resultants of row 1 and row 3?

(a) 46

(b) 32

(d) 36

(e) 22

Q84. What is the resultant of new row made by arranging the resultant of all three rows in ascending order from left to right?

(a) 80

(b) 75

(d) 60

(e) 55

Q85. What is the sum of the resultants of all the three rows?

Q86. Ten persons sit in two parallel rows and face each other. In row 1: A, B, C, D and E sit and all of them face south and in row 2: P, Q, R, S ad T sit and all of them face north. The consecutive alphabetical named persons didn’t sit adjacent to each other. R sits second from one of the ends. Only one person sits between R and the one who faces B. C sits second to the right of E who faces the one who sits immediate left of S. Only one person sits between Q and P. Who among the following faces A?

The one who sits adjacent to Q
The one who sits to the right of P
P
The one who sits immediate right of T
None of these

Directions (87-90): A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 532146 304536 541207 537894 263159 847312

Step I: 532136 304536 541249 537816 263181 84734

Step II:82136 34536 91249 87816 83181 12734

Step III: 28163 34563 19294 78861 38181 12743

Step IV: 6166 1566 8298 1862 5182 1746

Step V: 49 144 36 144 100 289 81 64 36 100 64 100

Step V is the final step of given input.

Answer the following questions based on the following input: –

Input: 142384 612385 393842 752403 540519 801517

Q87. What is the difference between the third number from the right end in step III and the fifth number from the left end in step II?

78287
65422
56452
98532
84532

Q88. What is the position of ‘1298’ in the penultimate step of the given input?

5th from the left
2nd from the left
3rd from the right
4th from the right
None of these

Q89. What is the sum of the odd numbers in step V?

Q90. What is the product of the numbers which are third from the right end in step V and third from the left end in step II?

1346700
1238400
4312700
5431200
1298000

Directions (91-92): Find the pattern of the given series and answer the following question given below.

Series: ?, 8, 72, 4608, 2880000

Q91. If the ratio of X to the missing term of the above series is 5:2, respectively, then find the value of 3X.

Q92. If X is 140% more than the missing term of the above series, then find the value of X.

Q93. If smallest root of equation 6×2 + 11x + 4 = 0 is ‘a’, then find the value of 64a.

1/16
64
16
1/64
1/256

Directions (94-95): Find the wrong number in the given series.

Q94. 2.2, 30, 6.6, 16.5, 49.5, 173.25, 693

2.2
30
16.5
49.5
693

Q95.

6.5
71.5
5.5
82.2

Directions (96-101): The pie chart shows percentage distribution of total officers (Government and Private) working in four (P, Q, R and S) different cities. The table shows number of private officers working in these cities.

Read the following pie chart and table carefully and answer the questions

given below.

Note: (i) Average number of private officers working in cities P, R and S is 400.

The ratio of number of private officers working in cities S and P is 3:7 respectively.

Q96. If 25% of total officers from each city P, Q, R, and S are moved to city E, if the total number of officers is presented in the pie chart with degree distribution, then find the central angle representing the officers in city E.(Note: Initially there were no officer in city E)

1. 72o
2. 90o
3. 108o
4. 180o
5. 36o

Q97. 45% of the private officers in S work 12 hours/day and the remaining 10 hours / day. While 50% of the government officers in S work 8 hours/day and the remaining 5 hours/day Find the sum of the total weekly working hours of all the government and private officers in S. (Note: One week

= 7 days and no holiday in included)

31990
39910
39190
30910
33990

Q98. If total tax paid by each officer in the city given below, then find which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

P = 2 lakh

Q = 1.2 lakh

R = 1.8 lakh

S = 1.5 lakh

1. Total tax paid by total officers in S is one- fifth of the total tax paid by total officers in Q.
2. Total tax paid by total officers in R is 75% of the total tax paid by total officers in Q.
3. Total tax paid by total officers in P and S together is less than the total tax paid by total officers in Q and R together.
  1. Both I & II
  2. Only III
  3. Both I & III
  4. Both II & III
  5. Only II

Q99. Find the ratio between total government officers in Q to total private officers in S.

Q100. 80% of the total officers in P work in the banking sector, and 60% of the private officers in P work in the banking sector. Find the government officers working in the non-banking sector.

Q101. If 75% and 60% of the private and government officers in R are males respectively, then find the sum of private and government female officers in R.

Directions (102-106): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below.

The information about athletes from three (P, Q, and R) different countries is selected from the Olympics in three (2010, 2014, and 2018) different years.

Athletes selected from P in 2014 are 2x+10, which is 10 more than the athletes selected from R in 2010. Athletes selected from Q in 2018 are half of the athletes selected from R in 2010, and athletes selected from R in 2014 were 20 more than those from R in 2010. The ratio of athletes selected from R in 2010 to 2018 is 9:13.

Athletes selected from P in 2010 were 18 more than athletes selected from R in 2010. The athletes selected from Q in 2010 and 2014 are 2a and 5a, respectively. Total athletes selected from P, Q, and R in all three years are 1150, 460, and 1260, respectively.

Q102. Find the difference between athletes selected from Q in 2014 and athletes selected from R in 2018.

Q103. If the average number of athletes selected from P, Q, R, and S in 2010 was 340, then find the number of athletes selected from S in 2010.

Q104. If the athletes selected from R in 2022 are 25% less than the athletes selected from Q in 2010 and 2014 together, then find the athletes selected from R in 2022.

Q105. Find the difference between athletes selected from P in 2014 and 2018 together and the value of a.

Q106. 40% of the athletes selected from Q in 2018 participated in track and field games, 25% of the remaining participated in archery, and the remaining participated in board games. Find the total athletes who participated in board games and track & field games.

Directions (107-111): The table shows total students who opted two different courses (Traditional
and Professional) in two (Amber and Dhara) different institute in three (2019, 2020 and 2021)
different years. (Each student opted for only one course). Read the following table carefully and
answer the questions given below.

Note: Students who opted for professional courses in Dhara and 40 respectively.

institute

in 2019, 2020 and 2021 are 60, 85

Q107. Find the difference between the total students in Amber Institute who opted for the traditional courses in 2021 and the total students in Dhara Institute who opted for the professional courses in 2020.

3x+5
2.5x+10
4.5x-15
4x+20
6x-20

Q108. Find the average number of students who opted for the professional courses in 2021 from both Institute.

Q109. Find the ratio between students who opted for both the courses together from Amber institute in 2019 to the value of x.

Q110. Students who opted for traditional courses from Amber institute in 2021 is what percentage of total students from both institutes together in 2021?

15%
16.67%
10%
8.33%
12.5%

Q111. The difference between students who opted for traditional courses and professional courses from Amber Institute in 2020 is ‘p’. The sum of the students who opted for professional courses from Dhara Institute in 2019 and 2021 together is ‘q’. Find the ‘p + q’.

Q112. P is more efficient than Q and R together. Efficiency of P and Q together is 14.28% less than the efficiency of P, Q and R together. If Q can complete 60% of the work in 9.6 days, then find the time (in days) taken by P and R together to complete 175% of the total work.

10.9
11.2
14.5
16.8
9.6

Q113. A man invested Rs P for ‘T’ years at 14% p.a. in simple interest, while he invested Rs ‘P+600’ for two years at 20% p.a. in compound interest, such that the total interest received is Rs 1464. If he invested Rs P for ‘T’ years at 8% p.a. in simple interest and received interest of Rs 384, then find the amount (in Rs) received from compound interest.

2652
2858
2664
2592
2904

Q114. P and Q started a business with investments of Rs 8000 and Rs 10000 and after four months, Q withdrew half of his investment. After two more months, R joined with an investment of Rs 12000. If at the end of the year the difference between the profit share of P and R is Rs 900, then find the profit share of P and Q together, which is how much more than that of R (in Rs).

2400
3200
3900
2900
3400

Q115. Rs Y is distributed among four different people A, B, C, and D, such that the share of A is Rs 4000 and the ratio of the share of C to D is 3:1, respectively. The share of B is 125% of the share of C and D together. If the average share of B and D is Rs 4800, then find the value of Y.

20800
22400
18400
21500
22800

Q116. The ratio of the ages of P and Q five years ago was 7:5, respectively, while the ratio of the ages of P and Q after seven years will be 13:11, respectively. If the present ages of P and Q are ‘a’ years and ‘b’ years, respectively, and the present age of R is 20% more than that of Q, then find the age of R after 12 years.

a+b-8
2b-8
3a-b
3b-a
2a-8

Q117. Boat P can cover some distance downstream in ‘a-5’ hours, and the same boat can cover the same distance upstream in ‘a+5’ hours. The speed of the boat P in still water is 12 km/hr. If the speed of the boat Q in still water is equal to the speed of the stream, which is equal to 7.5 km/hr, then find the distance (in km) covered by the boat Q downstream in ‘a+4’ hours. (Speed of stream for both the boat are same)

Q118. In a class, there are ‘a+10’ students whose average weight is 30 kg. If ‘b’ more students with an average weight of 64 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by four kg. If ‘b+3’ students with an average weight of 38 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by two kg. Find the value of 5 (a + b).

Q119. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is ‘X+26’ and there are four consecutive odd numbers, of which the 2nd lowest number is three more than the 2nd highest even number. If the sum of the lowest numbers in both series is 37, then find the value of X/2.

Q120.

give answer.

In the question, two equation (i) and (ii) are given. You have to solve both the equations and

If a>b
If a≥b
If a<b
If a≤b
If a = b or no relation can be established between a and b.

Q121.

give answer.

In the question, two equation (i) and (ii) are given. You have to solve both the equations and

If a>b
If a≥b
If a<b
If a≤b
If a = b or no relation can be established between a and b.

Directions (122-125): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

Q122.

Q123.

4020
4250
4550
4025
4225

Q124.

Q125.

1154
1143
1122
1139
1165

Directions (126-129):

as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the

In the given question, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another

appropriate option.

Q126. The ratio of milk to water in mixture A1 is 7:9. 80 liters of the mixture are taken out & the remaining mixture becomes another mixture, A2. When 8 liters of water are added to A2, a new mixture, A3, is formed, in which the ratio of milk to water becomes 5:7.

Quantity I. 60 liters

Quantity II. Find the quantity of milk in A2.

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q127. Quantity I. If Area of a circle is more than or equal to the area of a rectangle of sides 16 cm and one cm, then find the area of the circle.

Quantity II. Find the area of a square whose area is equal to the area of a rectangle. The sum of one side of the square and the breadth of the rectangle is 10 cm more than the length of the rectangle, and the perimeter of the rectangle is 20 cm.

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q128. A man invests Rs. 1800 at rate of 5% and x% per annum in the ratio 4: 5 respectively. At the end of two years, the man received total simple interest of Rs 160

Quantity I: Value of (x+12).

Quantity II: y2 = 256

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

Q129. Quantity I: A storekeeper has two types of shirts i.e., 15 yellow and 10 blue. If he sold 3 shirts, what is the probability that all these are of either yellow or blue.

Quantity II: 0.20

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

Directions (130-133): In the given questions, two statements are given Statement (I) and statement

You have to determine which statement/s is/are necessary/sufficient to find out the answer of the question.

Q130. The ratio of the marked price of article Q to the selling price of article P is 5:4, respectively. Find the profit (in Rs) earned after selling article P.

Statement I. The profit percent earned on article Q is 16.67%, and the markup percentage on article Q is 66.67%.

Statement II. The discount percent on article P is 20% while total profit earned on both the articles together is 66.67%.

1. Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
2. Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3. Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
4. Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5. Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q131. Set P and set Q contains four consecutives odd number and four consecutives even number respectively. Find the sum of the largest numbers from both the sets.

Statement I. Largest number of set P is one less than the smallest number of set Q.

Statement II. The sum of the smallest number of both the sets together is 29.

Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q132. What is the length of platform?

Statement I. Train ‘A’ can cross the platform in 20 seconds and it can cross another train ‘B’ coming from opposite direction in 12 seconds.

Statement II. Train ‘B’ can cross the same platform in 15 seconds and it can cross a man walking towards it in 4 seconds

Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q133. Total 24 balls are in a bag. If one ball is drawn at random from the bag, then find the probability that drawn ball is of red color?

Statement I. Probability of getting a ball that is not red is twice the probability of getting a red color ball.

Statement II. Blue balls in the bag is 6

Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q134. The area of the equilateral triangle is and the side of the equilateral triangle is half of the radius of the cylinder. If the volume of the cylinder is 12672 cm3, then find the height of the cylinder (in cm).

Q135. The X+150 meters long train can cross a pole in 16 seconds and speed of the train is 90 km/hr. If length of the bridge is X meters, then find the time taken by train to cross the bridge (in seconds).

Q136. A 120 liters mixture of milk and water is in the ratio of X : 11 respectively. If 40 liters of mixture are taken out and 16 liters of milk are added to the mixture, then ratio of milk to water becomes 13:11, respectively. Then find the value of X.

Directions (137-140): The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total cost of a firm to make

a unit of an article. The total revenue of the firm is Rs 78125 to sell all the articles. Read the following

pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: (i) The information about one unit product is given:

Net profit = Gross profit -Tax
Tax = one -fifth of gross profit
Net profit per unit = Rs 500
Advertisement cost is Rs 25 more than the tax value.
Units sold = 25
Selling price is equal for all the units.

Q137. Find the difference between total cost of 12 units and total advertisement cost of 18 units (in Rs).

1. 24200
2. 22400
3. 27300
4. 28400
5. 20200

Q138. If no tax is deducted, then find the sum of the packaging cost of three-unit articles and net profit earned by selling those articles (in Rs).

4250
4000
4500
5500
3000

Q139. Manufacturing one unit of article required 15 kg of material which consists material X and material Y. If per kg of material X cost Rs 30 and total cost material X is Rs 300, then find the per kg cost of material Y (in Rs).

Q140. If selling price per unit is increased by 20% and gross profit remains same, then find the difference between new advertisement cost of four article and the previous advertisement cost of four articles (in Rs).

30
25
35
37.5
40

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