SBI PO Prelims 2024 Question Paper

Q1. In the question below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence is error-free. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free. If all the given sentences have errors, then choose option ‘None is correct’ as the answer choice.

1. She insisted to take the blame even though the mishap was clearly not her fault.
2. The committee members, many of whom has served over a decade, voiced their dissent vehemently.
3. Had they adhered strictly to the guidelines, the irregularities would not have occurred.
4. The number of applicants, regardless of their credentials, do not guarantee selection.
5. None is correct

Q2. In the question below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence is error-free. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free. If all the given sentences have errors, then choose option ‘None is correct’ as the answer choice.

1. No sooner the storm had passed when the rescue operations began across the devastated coastlines.
2. The manager, along with her assistants, are conducting a quarterly audit to assess the team’s efficiency.
3. Only after receiving the final approval did the architect proceeded with the blueprint modifications.
4. The diplomat’s speech, though lengthy and nuanced, managed to convey the nation’s stance clearly.
5. None is correct

Q3. In the question below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence is error-free. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free. If all the given sentences have errors, then choose option ‘None is correct’ as the answer choice.

1. If he would have disclosed the real figures, the investors might had reconsidered their decisions.
2. Between you and I, the proposal lacks clarity and feasibility in its current format.
3. Rarely do the judges shows such leniency in cases involving repeated offenses.
4. The startup’s success, attributed largely to innovative thinking, drew attention from global investors.
5. None is correct

Q4. In the question below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence is error-free. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free. If all the given sentences have errors, then choose option ‘None is correct’ as the answer choice.

1. He refrained to mention the incident, fearing it may reopen old wounds among the committee members.
2. Were the documents submitted on time, we could had avoided the penalty altogether.
3. Neither the director nor the team members was willing to take responsibility for the error.
4. The statistics regarding rural employment, which was gathered last year, are now outdated.
5. None is correct

Q5. In the question below, four sentences have been given. Out of four sentences, one sentence is error-free. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free. If all the given sentences have errors, then choose option ‘None is correct’ as the answer choice.

1. Despite his best efforts, the conclusion he arrived lacked coherence and failed to address the premise.
2. Scarcely had the rebels laid down arms when fresh skirmishes erupted near the northern border.
3. Whosoever they appoint for the post must demonstrates both integrity and strategic foresight.
4. Not until the investigation was completed we knew the extent of the financial discrepancies.
5. None is correct

Directions (6-11): In the following paragraph there are blanks indicated by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank given in the sentence appropriately.

The COVID-19 pandemic brought a dramatic shift in global work culture. While some professionals

(A) the flexibility of remote work, others were eager to return to the structured environment of (B) office spaces. This divide in preference has highlighted several factors that influence individual choices.

One major reason many employees now prefer remote work is the significant reduction in commuting. For those residing in busy metropolitan areas, (C) can consume hours each day, often resulting in increased stress and decreased productivity. By working from home, these individuals find they can better manage their (D) while maintaining high efficiency.

On the other hand, some employees actively prefer returning to the office for social and professional reasons. The office environment fosters greater collaboration and provides immediate access to colleagues for spontaneous discussions and brainstorming. Additionally, certain employees believe that physical presence in the office enhances their chances of career growth.

Interestingly, some companies have adopted a (E) model, allowing employees to combine remote work with occasional office visits. This model seeks to balance the advantages of flexible working conditions with the benefits of face-to-face interaction.

Ultimately, the post-pandemic landscape (F) that the future of work is not one-size-fits-all. Employees are increasingly prioritizing factors like commute time, social interaction, and work-life balance when deciding which setup suits, the best.

Q6. Which of the following word best fits in (A)?

1. tailored
2. admitted
3. recognized
4. embraced
5. emphasized

Q7. Which of the following word best fits in (B)?

1. traditional
2. renovated
3. modern
4. pristine
5. collective

Q8. Which of the following word best fits in (C)?

1. walking
2. travelling
3. running
4. driving
5. moving

Q9. Which of the following word best fits in (D)?

1. resources
2. strength
3. schedules
4. funds
5. well -being

Q10. Which of the following word best fits in (E)?

1. nuanced (b)thorough
2. scientific
3. distinct
4. hybrid

Q11. Which of the following word best fits in (F)?

1. epitomizes
2. inhibits
3. demonstrates
4. promises
5. generalizes

Q12. In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. If no rearrangement is required select “No rearrangement required” as correct answer.

A: despite repeated warnings B: ignored the signs

C: the authorities D: of an impending E: natural disaster

1. CBAED
2. CBDEA
3. EDBAC
4. CDEBA
5. No rearrangement required

Q13. In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. If no rearrangement is required select “No rearrangement required” as correct answer.

A: which can contribute to reducing urban congestion B: and promote healthier lifestyles

C: encouraging the use of bicycles in cities

D: while also lowering pollution levels significantly E: is a sustainable approach,

1. CEADB
2. ECBAD
3. DCEBA
4. EACDB
5. No rearrangement required

Q14. In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. If no rearrangement is required select “No rearrangement required” as correct answer.

A: of prolonged droughts and extreme heat

B: climate change is intensifying the frequency C: across various parts of the globe

D: impacting agriculture and water supply E: causing significant ecological imbalances

1. BCAED
2. BACDE
3. DABCE
4. CDEAB
5. No rearrangement required

Q15. In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement. If no rearrangement is required select “No rearrangement required” as correct answer.

A: as the world becomes increasingly digital B: governments need to ensure access

C: to digital tools and internet connectivity D: especially in rural and underserved areas E: to bridge the digital divide

1. ADBEC
2. DECBA
3. EACBD
4. ACBDE
5. No rearrangement required

Directions (16-18): In the given question, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank at the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.

Q16. The central bank introduced measures to shadow banking activities and liquidity to ensure financial stability.

1. invigorate, conserve
2. dismantle, infuse
3. prolong, restrict
4. validate, suspend
5. highlight, withdraw

Q17. The ambassador attempted to diplomatic ties after the conflict and urged both nations to

their strategic objectives.

1. dismantle, confuse
2. revive, align
3. obscure, isolate
4. dismiss, exaggerate
5. withhold, collide

Q18. To address global warming, the agreement sought to industrial emissions and innovations in renewable technology.

1. conceal, ignore
2. escalate, delay
3. reduce, foster
4. isolate, inhibit
5. monitor, neglect

Directions (19-26): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

The COVID-19 pandemic not only reshaped the toy industry for children but also triggered an unexpected trend among adults — a growing attachment to soft toys. As lockdowns and social distancing measures confined people to their homes, many adults turned to soft toys as a source of emotional comfort and stress relief. The sense of familiarity and warmth offered by these toys provided a much-needed emotional anchor during uncertain times. The increased focus on mental health and self-care led to a noticeable rise in soft toy purchases among adults, alongside other comfort-focused items like weighted blankets, calming puzzles, and mindfulness books.

In 2020, toy sales increased by 16%, with soft toys playing a significant role in this growth—not only among children but also among adults. Adults began seeking ways to reconnect with their inner child, using soft toys as a tool for emotional regulation and relaxation. The tactile comfort of plush toys helped reduce anxiety, promote better sleep, and provide a sense of security. Educational toys and products supporting emotional well-being gained traction among adults as well, but soft toys stood out as a sign of emotional healing and personal comfort in an unpredictable environment.

Interestingly, even social media influencers have contributed to this trend. One popular influencer recently admitted feeling the pressure to her collection of soft toys, worried that it might

affect her online image. However, her audience rallied around her, encouraging her to embrace her love for soft toys and continue sharing her playful side. This highlights a broader shift in cultural attitudes, where emotional vulnerability and self-comfort are becoming more accepted and even celebrated.

Zahn, a behavioral expert, noted that the emotional attachment to soft toys reflects a deeper need for psychological stability. "The act of holding or hugging a soft toy activates the brain’s calming response," Zahn explained. As the market stabilized in 2021, the demand for soft toys among adults remained strong due to their emotional value. The trend toward eco-friendly products also became evident, with adults showing increasing interest in soft toys made from sustainable materials.

Adults have increasingly started to book their toy purchases in advance to secure limited-edition and themed products during sales events. The growing influence of streaming platforms on product discovery and marketing has further shaped adult buying patterns. Soft toys have become a lasting symbol of emotional security and inner peace, reflecting a broader shift in how adults approach emotional well-being post-pandemic. The soft toy market, once dominated by children, now reflects a growing cultural acceptance of adults embracing their inner child.

Q19. Choose the word that is most similar in meaning to the word "confined" as used in the passage:

1. Restricted
2. Isolated
3. Protected
4. Relocated
5. Diverted

Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?

• 1. The rise in soft toy sales during the pandemic was driven by both emotional comfort and their educational value for adults.
  2. The influencer’s decision to get rid of her soft toys was met with disapproval from her audience.
  3. Zahn attributed the rise in soft toy sales to their affordability and widespread availability in the market.
     1. Only I and II are correct
     2. Only II is correct
     3. Only I and III are correct
     4. Only II and III are correct
     5. All are correct

Q21. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect based on the passage?

• • • 1. Adults started buying soft toys during the pandemic because they became more affordable and widely available.
      2. Streaming platforms helped increase the visibility of soft toys among adult consumers.
      3. The increased interest in soft toys among adults was linked to a broader shift in consumer values toward emotional security.
         1. Only I and II are incorrect
         2. Only II and III are incorrect
         3. Only I is incorrect
         4. Only I and III are incorrect
         5. All are incorrect

Q22. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the passage?

Soft toys became popular among adults during the pandemic as a tool for emotional regulation and stress relief.

Zahn predicted that the market for soft toys would decline sharply after the pandemic.

The influencer’s decision to stop playing with soft toys was influenced by negative audience feedback.

Only I and II are true

Only II is true

Only I is true

Only I and III are true

All are true

Q23. Choose the word that is most similar in meaning to the word "book" as used in the passage:

1. Reserve
2. Record
3. Collect
4. Confirm
5. Purchase

Q24. Choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blank with the correct phrase:

1. take away
2. get rid of
3. put away
4. dispose off
5. give away

Q25. Choose the word that is most similar in meaning to the word "sign" as used in the passage:

1. Gesture
2. Physical
3. Agreement
4. Symbol
5. Display

Q26. What shift in consumer behavior regarding toy purchases is highlighted in the passage?

1. Adults started prioritizing emotional comfort and nostalgia over educational value.
2. Increased demand for digital toys reduced the popularity of soft toys.
3. Parents influenced their children’s toy preferences based on eco-friendly choices.
4. Adults preferred to buy soft toys only during holiday seasons and sales events.
5. Emotional value lost significance as affordability became the driving factor.

Q27. In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The central bank’s recent policy shift is seen as a response to (A) inflationary (B) persistent (C) pressure on the currency.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. CAB
4. BCA
5. No rearrangement required

Q28. In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The peace talks were hindered by (A) conflicting (B) claims (C) territorial made by both nations at the summit.

1. ACB
2. BAC
3. BCA
4. CAB
5. No rearrangement required

Q29. In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The company is facing criticism for allegedly sharing user data with (A) platforms (B) unauthorized

(C) third-party without explicit consent.

1. ACB
2. CBA
3. BAC
4. BCA
5. No rearrangement required

Q30. In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with three words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

The documentary presents a (A) portrayal of the refugee crisis that is both (B) raw, (C) moving and unflinchingly honest.

1. ACB
2. CBA
3. BCA
4. No rearrangement required
5. BAC

Directions (31-33): Which of the following phrases given below the sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark “No correction required” as the answer.

Q31.The President arrived in a black armored sleek vehicle as part of heightened security arrangements for the summit.

1. sleek black armored
2. armored sleek black
3. sleek armored black
4. black sleek armored
5. No replacement required

Q32.The UN resolution proposed that the country improves its human rights record before further aid is granted.

1. the country will improve its
2. the country should improves its
3. the country improve its
4. the country had improved its
5. No replacement required

Q33.The minister did not specify why was the policy reversed despite public support.

1. why did the policy
2. the reason for which
3. that why the policy
4. why the policy was
5. No replacement required

Q34. In each question two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.

Column I

• 1. Caught in the unexpected traffic jam,
  2. The new housing policy
  3. Without proper guidance,

Column II

• 1. many first-time buyers felt overwhelmed.
  2. they missed the crucial interview.
  3. sparked debates across the city.
     1. A-D
     2. B-E
     3. Both A-D and B-D
     4. A-E
     5. B-E and C-D

Q35. In the question below, four sentences are given. Only one of them uses the phrasal verb "break down" correctly in context. Choose the correct option. If none of the sentences is correct, select option

(E) None is correct.

1. She plans to break down the stairs to paint them a brighter color.
2. I will break down my friend at the airport tomorrow morning.
3. They break down the cake and served it in tiny portions.
4. The washing machine tends to break down every time we overload it.
5. None is correct

Directions (36-40): Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph where sentence (D) is FIXED in its position and answer the questions given below them.

• 1. Remote work, once rare, is now a common practice in many industries worldwide.
  2. Therefore, automation is replacing repetitive tasks and creating new opportunities in various job roles.
  3. This transformation is driven by three interconnected pillars: remote work, automation, and the gig economy.

Technological advancements and connectivity are removing geographical limits in modern work settings.

• 1. The traditional concept of work is undergoing a profound transformation, reshaping the very fabric of how we approach our careers and professional lives.
  2. These pillars are transforming workplaces and encouraging adaptability and innovation.

Q36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E

(b) C

(c) F

(d) A

(e) B

Q37. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) E

(c) B

(d) C

(e) F

Q38. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) E

(c) F

(d) A

(e) B

Q39. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) F

(d) C

(e) E

Q40. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

1. C
2. F
3. A
4. E
5. B

Directions (41-45): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows total number of EV manufactured by five different companies. The table also shows the percentage of petrol vehicles manufactured out of the total vehicles (diesel, EV and Petrol) manufactured and the percentage of diesel vehicles manufactured out of the total petrol vehicles manufactured by these companies.

Q41. Find the difference between the total number of diesel vehicles manufactured by D and the total number of vehicles (diesel, EV, and petrol) manufactured by B.

1. 100
2. 165
3. 65
4. 125
5. 90

Q42. The total number of petrol vehicles manufactured by E is what percentage more or less than the total number of diesel vehicles manufactured by D?

1. 86.67%
2. 43.33%
3. 33.33%
4. 52.5%
5. 72.5%

Q43. Find the ratio of the total number of vehicles (diesel, EV, and petrol) manufactured by C to the total number of EVs manufactured by B.

1. 3:1
2. 1:3
3. 1:2
4. 2:3
5. 3:4

Q44. The total number of vehicles (diesel, EV, and petrol) manufactured by F is 25% more than that of D, and the total number of petrol vehicles manufactured by F is half that of C. If the ratio of the total number of diesel vehicles manufactured by B to F is 12:19, respectively, then find the total number of EVs manufactured in F.

1. 509
2. 452
3. 398
4. 456
5. 533

Q45. The total number of vehicles (diesel, EV, and petrol) manufactured by A is how many more or less than the total number of diesel vehicles manufactured C, D and B together.

1. 500
2. 220
3. 390
4. 420
5. 250

Directions (46-50): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information about three sellers who sold two types of rice, i.e., brown and white.

The quantity of white rice sold by all three seller is 230 kg. The quantity of brown rice sold by B is 20% more than the quantity of white rice sold by A. The quantity of white rice sold by B is 20 kg more than that of brown rice. The ratio of brown rice sold by A to B is 2:3. The average quantity of brown rice sold by all three sellers is 60 kg, and the total rice (white and brown) sold by C is 75 kg.

Q46. The total quantity of white rice sold by C is how much more or less than the total quantity of brown rice sold by A (in Kg).

1. 10
2. 15
3. 5
4. 12
5. 8

Q47. The total quantity of white rice sold by B is what percentage of the total quantity of brown rice sold by A?

1. 133.33%
2. 150.33%
3. 175.25%
4. 199.75%
5. 183.33%

Q48. The total quantity of white rice sold by D is 5 kg more than the average quantity of brown rice sold by A and C. If the total quantity of brown rice sold by D and B is in the ratio of 11:15 respectively, then find the total quantity of rice (brown and white) sold by D.

1. 116 kg
2. 112 kg
3. 110 kg
4. 104 kg
5. None of these

Q49. If the price of each kg of white rice sold by A is Rs 20 and the total revenue earned by A to sell all the quantity of rice (brown + white) is Rs 2580, then find the price of each kg of brown rice sold.

1. 8
2. 14
3. 10
4. 18
5. 12

Q50. Find the ratio of the total quantity of white rice sold by B to the total quantity of brown rice sold by A and B together.

1. 12:11
2. 14:19
3. 13:11
4. 11:15
5. 10: 17

Directions (51-55): Read the following pie charts carefully and answer the questions given below. The pie chart (I) shows the percentage distribution of the total number of tickets sold by five different cinema halls on Sunday. The pie chart (II) shows the percentage distribution of the profit earned by these cinema halls on Sunday.

Note: The average profit of each ticket sold is Rs 30.

Q51. Find the difference between the profit earned on each ticket sold by A and B together and the profit earned on each ticket sold by D and E together (In Rs).

1. 0.5
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
5. 3

Q52. The total number of tickets sold by E and C together is what percentage more or less than the total number of tickets sold by B?

1. 33.33%
2. 45%
3. 60%
4. 62.5%
5. 87.5%

Q53. The total number of tickets sold by X is 3/5th of the A. If the profit earned on each ticket sold by X is 20% more than that of D, then find the total profit earned by X (in Rs).

1. 1152
2. 1090
3. 1253
4. 1020
5. None of these

Q54. The average number of tickets sold by B and D together is how many more or less than the average number of tickets sold by A and E together.

1. 20
2. 15
3. 14
4. 12
5. 10

Q55. If the total profit earned by F is 33.33% more than that of A, and the total tickets sold by C is 40% of the total tickets sold by F, then find the profit on each ticket sold by F (in Rs).

1. 48
2. 18
3. 12
4. 32
5. 40

Directions (56-58): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

Q56. 29.98% of 560+120.11 of 39=?

1. 4889
2. 4848
3. 4678
4. 4458
5. 4008

Q57.

1. 98
2. 127
3. 123
4. 130
5. 112

Q58.

1. 534
2. 450
3. 239
4. 670
5. 809

Q59. A man invested Rs.44999.87 in two different schemes A and B, which scheme A offers simple interest at rate of 7.5% p.a. and scheme B offers simple interest at rate of 8% p.a., If after two years, the ratio of interest received by man from scheme A to that of B is 15 : 8, then find the approximate amount invested by man in scheme B (in Rs)?

1. 30000
2. 12000
3. 20000
4. 15000
5. 18000

Q60. A and B invested Rs 7999.99 and Rs 5000.03 in a business. A invested his amount for whole years and B invested for T+2 days. At the end of the year, the profit share of B is Rs 5999.93 out of total profit of Rs. 22000.01. Find the approximate value of ‘T’?

1. 267
2. 217
3. 247
4. 307
5. 311

Q61. The present age of a father is twice as that of his son. 10 years ago, the age of father was thrice the age of his son. If the ratio of present age of son’s mother to father is 9 : 8, then find the difference between present age of mother and son (in years)?

1. 24
2. 30
3. 18
4. 25
5. 20

Q62. The length of rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If Rs. 960 is required to fencing the field at the rate Rs 7.5 per sq. m, then what would be the difference between the length and breadth of the field?

1. 32 m
2. 16 m
3. 24 m
4. 48 m
5. 40 m

Q63. A is the set of ten consecutive numbers, while the average of second lowest and the highest number of set A is 32. If B is the set of five consecutive odd number which lowest number is equal to second highest number of set A, then find the average of set B?

1. 41
2. 37
3. 39
4. 43
5. 45

Q64. A spends 30% of his monthly income on rent, 25% of the remaining on groceries, and the remaining amount on entertainment and savings in the ratio 2:3, respectively. What percentage of his income is spent on entertainment?

1. 19%
2. 21%
3. 30%
4. 25%
5. 18%

Q65. A tank contains 149.99 liters of juice and soda, in which 49.99 liters are soda. If 30.12 liters of mixture are taken out and 10.02 liters of pure juice are added, then find the ratio of juice to soda in the resultant mixture.

1. 6:5
2. 8:3
3. 5:7
4. 4:5
5. 9:4

Q66. A and B can complete a work in 15 and 30 days, respectively. A and B work together for 6 days, and then A leaves. C joins the work, and B & C together complete the remaining work in 5 days. In how many days can C complete the whole work alone?

1. 110/9
2. 123/8
3. 150/7
4. 121/3
5. None of these

Q67. A sold two items, X and Y, at 25% and 35% profit, respectively. If the difference between their profit is Rs 750 and the cost price of both items is the same, find the cost price of item X.

1. Rs 750
2. Rs 1750
3. Rs 7500
4. Rs 8750
5. Rs 5750

Q68. The ratio of the speed of a boat in still water to the speed of a current is 4:1. The total time taken by the boat to cover D km downstream and D – 10 km upstream is 12 hours. Find D.

1. 125
2. 105
3. 80
4. Can’t be determined
5. None of these

Q69. The speed of train A is 20 m/sec, which is double the speed of train B. The ratio of the length of the trains A to B is 10:7, respectively. Train B can cross a pole in 28 seconds; then find the length of train A (in meters).

1. 400
2. 250
3. 280
4. 360
5. 440

Q70. A invested Rs P+500 in compound interest for two years at 10% p.a. and received interest of Rs 840. If he invested Rs P at 15% p.a. for simple interest for the same period, then find the amount he received (in Rs).

1. 4000
2. 4550
3. 1550
4. 3500
5. 4050

Q71. In the word ‘CREATION’, how many pairs of the letters have the same letters between them (both forward and backward direction) as in the English alphabet?

1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. More than four

Directions (72-74): In each question below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Now, decide which of the two given conclusions logically follow from the statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q72. Statements:

All manager are help. Only a few help are free. Some free is not rude.

Conclusions:

• 1. All help being rude is a possibility.
  2. Some manager is help.
     1. Only I follows
     2. Only II follows
     3. Either I or II follows
     4. Both I and II follow
     5. None follows

Q73. Statements:

Only travel are planet. Some crow are travel. All crow are silver.

Conclusions:

• • • 1. Some planet being silver is a possibility.
      2. All travel can never be crow.
         1. Only I follows
         2. Only II follows
         3. Either I or II follows
         4. Both I and II follow
         5. None follows

Q74. Statements:

No cow are money.

Only a few cow are plate. All money are singer.

Conclusions:

No plate is money.

All plate being singer is a possibility.

Only I follows

Only II follows

Either I or II follows

Both I and II follow

None follows

Directions (75-79): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I – are sitting around a circular table, all facing towards the center. But not necessarily in the same order.

Only one person sits between A and F. C sits third to the right B, who is an immediate neighbor of A. Only three people sit between A and G. G sits second to the left of H. I is an immediate neighbor of both A and H. F is not an immediate neighbor of D.

Q75. What is the position of E with respect to A?

1. Third to the right
2. Immediate left
3. Fifth to the left
4. Second to the right
5. Fifth to the right

Q76. Who among the following sit between C and B when counted in clockwise direction from B?

I. H

II. F

III. D

• 1. Both I and II
  2. Only III
  3. Both II and III
  4. Both I and III
  5. Only I

Q77. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one

which doesn’t belong to the group.

1. B-E
2. F-C
3. C-D
4. D-I
5. H-B

Q78. How many persons sit between G and E when counted from left of G?

1. Three
2. Two
3. One
4. Four
5. None

Q79. Who among the following sit fourth to the right of I?

1. E
2. F
3. C
4. G
5. None of these

Q80. If a four-letter meaningful word is formed by using of 1st, 4th, 7th and 10th letter from left end of the word ‘INTERSTELLAR’, then what will be the second letter from right end of that meaningful word. If more than one meaningful word is formed, mark the answer as Y and if no meaningful word is formed, mark the answer as Z.

1. I
2. T
3. Z
4. E
5. Y

Directions (81-85): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten people—J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S—live in a building with five floors and two flats (Flat 1 and Flat 2) on each floor. The floors are numbered from 1 to 5 (1 being the lowermost floor and 5 being the topmost floor).

Note I: Each floor has two flats viz., Flat-1 and Flat-2, where Flat 1 is to the west of Flat 2.

Note II: Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above Flat 1 of floor 1 and immediately below Flat 1 of floor 3 and so on. Similarly Flat 2 of floor 2 is immediately above Flat 2 of floor 1 and immediately below Flat 2 of floor 3 and so on.

Note III: The area of each flat is equal.

Note IV: Only two persons live on each floor and only one person lives in each flat.

L lives on an even-numbered floor in Flat-1. P lives in Flat-2 of the topmost floor. N lives west of Q. N lives on a floor immediately below the L’s floor. K and R live on the same named flat. K and L lives in a different named flat. Only one floor is between K and O. K lives below O. S lives to the west of P. M lives immediately below O, but not in the same named flat. One floor between J’s floor and L’s floor.

Q81. Who lives in Flat 1 on the topmost floor?

1. S
2. J
3. M
4. O
5. None of these

Q82. Which pair of people live on the same floor?

1. M and K
2. Q and P
3. K and L
4. R and O
5. None of these

Q83. Who lives in Flat 2 on the third floor?

1. M
2. R
3. K
4. Q
5. O

Q84. How many persons live between S and N in the same numbered flat?

1. None
2. One
3. Four
4. Two
5. Three

Q85. Which among the following statement is/are false?

1. Two floors between P’s floor and L’s floor
2. J lives above L
3. N lives immediately below K.
4. Q lives above M
5. K lives east of L

Directions (86-90): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Eight persons — A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were studying about different birds in different months of the same year, viz. January, March, May, June, July, October, November and December, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is studying about different birds — Kingfisher, Toucans, Penguin, Ostrich, Woodpecker, Loon, Sparrow and Peacock.

G is studying in the month having odd number of days. Either two persons were studying before G or after G. Two persons were studying between G and the one who is studying about loon. H was studying three persons after the person who is studying about ostrich and four months before A. Three persons were studying between A and the one who is studying about Woodpecker. B is studying about Sparrow two persons before F. F is studying before E. The one who is studying about Penguin is studying immediately after the one studying about Kingfisher. Two persons were studying between the ones studying about Kingfisher and Peacock. D is not the first one to study.

Q86. Which among the following combination is correct?

1. D and the one studying about Loon
2. G and the one studying about Peacock
3. F and the one studying about Penguin
4. C and the one studying about Ostrich
5. H and the one studying about Toucans

Q87. Which of the following statement is true?

1. B is studying in the month of June.
2. Two persons were studying after F.
3. G is studying about woodpecker
4. A is studying in the month of October.
5. E is not studying about Penguin.

Q88. How many persons were studying between D and the one studying about Kingfisher?

1. Six
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
5. Two

Q89. Which among the following statement is not true?

1. A is studying about Loon
2. F is studying in the month having even number of days.
3. C is studying in the month after D.
   1. Only III
   2. Both I and II
   3. Both I and III
   4. Both II and III
   5. All I, II and III

Q90. Who among the following was born in the month of June?

1. The person studying about Penguin
2. The person studying about Kingfisher
3. The person studying about Ostrich
4. The person studying about Loon
5. The person studying about Peacock

Directions (91-95): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W – sit in a linear row. Some of them face North and some face South.

Note: Equal number of persons face north and south.

T sits third to the right of V. One person sits between S and V. Both S and V face opposite directions to each other. P sits immediately to the right of S. P and V are not immediate neighbours. Three persons sit between P and R. W sits second to the left of R. W is not an immediate neighbour of V. Immediate neighbours of R face in the direction opposite to each other. T sits immediate to the right of Q. The persons sit at both the ends of the row face opposite direction to each other. W and U face the same direction. W doesn’t face north.

Q91. The number of persons sits to the right of T is same as than the number of persons sits to the right of ____.

1. V
2. P
3. W
4. S
5. R

Q92. What is the position of Q with respect to S?

1. Sixth to the right
2. Second to the left
3. Fifth to the right
4. Second to the right
5. Sixth to the left

Q93. How many persons sit between W and U?

1. None
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. Four

Q94. If R is related to T and in the same way Q is related to U then S is related to who among the following persons?

1. P
2. V
3. R
4. U
5. T

Q95. Who among the following persons sits exactly between V and Q?

1. P
2. S
3. R
4. U
5. T

Directions (96-100): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons –C, P, Q, S, T and U– were born in different years among 1933, 1944, 1981, 1987, 1993 and 2018. The base year for calculating age is 2025. Each of them likes to visit a different place among Italy, Greece, Spain, Egypt, Maldives, and Japan (not necessarily in the same order).

C is six years elder than the person who likes to visit Italy. One person was born between the persons who likes to visit Italy and Maldives. U is immediately elder than the person who likes to visit Maldives. S is two persons elder than T. The one who likes to visit Spain is immediately younger than the T. C doesn’t like to visit Spain. The one who likes to visit Japan is two persons elder than the one who likes to visit Egypt. P doesn’t like to visit Greece and Maldives.

Q96. What is the sum of ages of S, U and Q?

1. 120 years
2. 111 years
3. 101 years
4. 122 years
5. 121 years

Q97. What is the age of the person who likes to visit Maldives?

1. 32 years
2. 7 years
3. 44 years
4. 38 years
5. 81 years

Q98. Which of the following combinations is correctly matched?

1. S – 1944 – Egypt
2. Q – 2018 – Spain
3. P – 1933 – Japan
4. U – 2018 – Maldives
5. T – 1944 – Greece

Q99. Which among the following statement is/are false?

• 1. U is elder than T.
  2. C is 37 years elder than S.
  3. S doesn’t like to visit Maldives.
     1. Both I and III
     2. Only III
     3. Both I and II
     4. Both II and III
     5. All I, II and III

Q100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one

which doesn’t belong to the group.

1. P
2. U
3. C
4. T
5. Q

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Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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