SBI PO Mains 2024 – Question Paper

Data Interpretationa nd Analysis

Directions (1-4): The first term of the series which consist of six terms is m°. The second term of the series is the smallest even prime number. The third term of the series is the cube of the second term. The fourth term of the series is square of third term. The fifth term of the series is 16 times the fourth term of the series. (m is a natural number)

Q1. Find the sixth term of the series.

1024
31768
32766
32768
2244

Q2. Find the ratio of second term and fifth term of the series.

10:21
1:8
5:324
1:512
21:44

Q3. The sixth term is what percentage of 32 time the fifth term of the series.

Q4. If another series starts with 1.5, then find the fourth term of the new series.

Q5. A cuboid has a total surface area (TSA) of 94 sq. cm and a volume of 60 cubic cm. If its length is l cm, breadth is b cm, and height is h cm, l, b, and h, assuming all are positive and consecutive integers.

Given, l<b<h.

Quantity I: Find lateral Surface Area (LSA) of Cuboid.

Quantity II: Total Surface Area of a cube with side is ‘b’.

Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q6. The time taken by A to complete a work is 20 days. B takes 2x% more days than A to complete the same work, and C takes x% more days than B to complete the work. The time taken by C alone to complete the work is equal to the sum of the time taken by A and B alone to complete the work. Find the time taken by all to complete 11 times the work.

Q7. Boat A travels a certain distance in downstream and upstream in 27 hours. Find the time taken by boat B to cover the same distance in downstream and in upstream. The downstream speed of boat A and B is 15 km/hr and 10 km/hr.The upstream speed of boat A and B is 12 km/hr and 9 km/hr.

Directions (8-11): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

There are three Sets A, B, and C, which contain a total of 13 unique integers. Total of ‘n’ prime numbers is distributed among them. Set A has four numbers. The product of the smallest and largest number in Set A is 26. Set B has five numbers, but only two of them are prime numbers (others are composite). Set C has four numbers. The product of the smallest and largest number in Set C is 23, which is the highest number in all three sets.

Q8. If two prime number of set B < 11 and set C contains only one prime number, then find which of the following are the correct set of all the prime numbers?

2, 13, 13, 19, 23
2, 13, 17, 19, 23
2, 5, 7, 13, 19, 17, 23
2, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23
2, 13, 13, 17, 19, 23

Q9. If n<8, and total prime number in set A>set B, then find the which set have least prime number?

B
C
Can be B and C
Can’t be determined
None of these

Q10. If the sum of all elements in set C is 43 and there is total seven prime numbers in all three sets, and the non-prime numbers in set C are consecutive even numbers, then find the sum of prime numbers in set A, 2nd number of set A>3?

Q11. If set C has highest prime numbers, then find minimum possible value of ‘n’?

8
6
7
Can’t determined
None of these

Directions (12-16): Read the data answer the following question.

There are 200 students in a school some student likes three different fruits apple, kiwi and mango and some students do not like any fruit. The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of students who like apple, mango, kiwi and only kiwi. No students like all three fruits.

Number of students who do not like any fruit are twice the number of students who like only Apple and mango together.

Number of students who do not like any fruit = Number of students who like only Apple and Kiwi together + 20.

Q12. How many students likes only two fruits together.

Q13. Total students like only kiwi are what percentage of difference between students like only apple and only mango.

Q14. The students who like only apple and kiwi together is what percentage more /less of who like only mango and kiwi together.

Q15. 20% of students who do not like any fruits like only red colour. The student who likes only red colour is how many less than who like apple.

Q16. Find the ratio of students like only kiwi and only mango to students who like mango and kiwi.

9:1
9:4
9:2
9:10
9:5

Directions (17-18): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Piya and Siya are selling cakes on three days. i.e., Saturday, Sunday, and Monday. The ratio of cakes sold by Piya on Monday and Sunday is 1:2, respectively. The cakes sold by Siya on Monday is 20, and the cakes sold by Siya on Saturday is the same as the average cakes sold by Piya on all three days. The difference between the cakes sold by Piya and Siya on Monday is the same as the difference between the cakes sold by Piya and Siya on Saturday. Piya sold less cakes than Siya on each day.

Q17. The cakes sold by Siya on all three days together is 94. Find the cakes sold by Siya on Sunday.

20
12
15
None of these
Can’t be determined

Q18. Which of the statement/s is/are can be correct.

1. If the cakes sold by Piya on Monday is 18, then total cakes sold by Siya on all three days together is 81.
2. The cakes sold by Piya on Saturday is 90.
3. If the cakes sold by Piya on Saturday is 21, then the lowest possible cakes sold by Siya on Sunday is 35.
  1. Only I
  2. Only II
  3. Only III
  4. Both I & II
  5. Both II & III

Directions (19-23): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

The table shows basic pay, sales target, sale achieved and number of units sold by four different persons in 2018. Also, table shows some information about sales and incentives.

Note: I. Each unit costs are Rs 20.

II. Percentage of sales target realised

III. Sales target = 2.5 times the basic pay.

Q19. The number of units sold by X is the same as the average number of units sold by A and B. If the basic pay of X is the same as the average basic pay of C and D, then find the amount of incentive received by X.

Rs 7500
Can’t be determined
Rs 10500
None of these
Rs 6000

Q20. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?

1. The total amount of incentive earned by A and B together is R 15000.
2. The number of units sold by C is the lowest among all.
3. The total amount of incentive earned by C is less than that of D.
  1. All I, II & III
  2. Both I & III
  3. Both I & II
  4. Both II & III
  5. Only II

Q21. Find the incentive amount earned by B (in Rs).

10500
6000
None of these
7500
Can’t be determined

Q22. Sales achieved by A are what percentage of the sales achieved by B?

78.5%
91.25%
83.33%
93.33%
90%

Q23. The basic pay of Y is 1.2 times the B, and Y had a sales target rate of 60%. Find the number of units sold by Y.

Q24. A, B, C, D, and E are five persons, and the total weight of all the persons is 200 kg. The total weight of A and B is 56 kg, and the weights of A and B are in the ratio of 3:5, respectively. The weight of C is more than A but less than B. Weight of B is less than D, and weight of E is more than

D. (Note: the weights of all persons are integers) Which of the statement/s is/are can be correct.

Maximum possible weight of C is 34 kg.
Maximum possible weight of E is 74 kg.
Maximum possible weight of D is 56 kg.
1. All I, II & III
2. Both I & III
3. Only I
4. Both II & III
5. Only II

Directions (25-26): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A set of natural numbers has to be formed that consists of six numbers, and the last number is 30. The first number of the set is the highest root of the given equation, and the second number of the set is (n+4) – 2n, where ‘n’ is the difference between the roots of the given equation. The third number of the set is (n+1)²– (n+1). The fourth number of the set is (n+2)² – (n+2). The fifth number of the set is (n+1)3 – (n+5). (Note: x2 – 14x + 48 = 0)

Q25. Which of the statement/s is/are correct.

- 1. The product of second and fifth number is perfect square.
  2. The average of last four number is 17.
  3. If the seventh number of the set is sixth number + n3, then the resultant number is a factor of 114.
    1. All I, II & III
    2. Both I & III
    3. Only I
    4. Only III
    5. Both II & III

Q26. Find the HFC of third and fourth number of the set.

Q27. The speed of trains A (Sa) and B (Sb), in km/hr with Sa > Sb, are the roots of the equation x2 – 130x + 4200 = 0. Let Ta and Tb be their usual times in hours to cover a certain distance D km. If their speeds are swapped for the same distance D. (i.e. A travels at Sb and B travels at Sa), train A then takes (Ta + 2) hours and train B takes (Tb -2) hours. Find the sum of the original times (in hours), Ta and Tb.

Q28. The volume of a cuboid is 120 cubic meters, and the lateral surface area of the cuboid is 140 square meters. The length, breadth, and height of the cuboid are ‘l’, ‘b’, and ‘h’, respectively, and they are integers. (l > b)

Quantity I: 2l -b – h/2 Quantity II: 3b × l/h Quantity III: 2b – l ÷ h

Quantity I < Quantity II < Quantity III
Quantity I < Quantity II > Quantity III
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II = Quantity III
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II > Quantity III
Quantity I = Quantity < Quantity III

Q29. I. x2 -Px + 32 = 0 (Roots of the equation is 4 and 4A.) 2(cube of root of Y) = Square of root of Y.

Quantity I: Find the value of 2a.

Z2 – KZ + 990 = 0 (a and b are root of the equation and the value of K = 5P+3.) Quantity II: Find the value of Y+A.

Quantity III: Find the value of (Y+2) – Highest root of the equation I.

Quantity I < Quantity II < Quantity III
Quantity I < Quantity II > Quantity III
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II = Quantity III
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II > Quantity III
Quantity I = Quantity < Quantity III

Q30. Statement I: The length of cuboid B is 3/4 of the length of cuboid A. The height of cuboid A is 1.2 times that of cuboid B. The difference between the breadth of cuboids A and B is Z. The breadth of cuboids A and B is in the ratio of 8:3, respectively.

Statement II: The area of a cube is 225z square meters, and the side of the cube is the same as the breadth of the cuboid A.

Using both statements determined the value of Z.

English

Directions (1-5): Read the following passage carefully. After the passage, a few phrasal verbs are listed. Match each phrasal verb with the most appropriate option by selecting the correct letter. The Earth is changing. Over the past few decades, human activity has released billions of tons of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These emissions (A) temperature rises, rising sea levels, and more frequent natural disasters. Climate scientists agree: the damage is real, and it’s accelerating.

To mitigate the crisis, global leaders introduce policies (B) carbon emissions, promote renewable energy, and reduce dependency on fossil fuels. Environmental organizations also take steps (C) waste, pollution, and irresponsible consumption through education and grassroots initiatives.

Some countries, recognizing the urgency, undertook aggressive climate targets years ago. They (E) the challenge of building wind farms, transitioning to electric public transport, and conserving forests. These examples inspire others to act with similar resolve.

Still, no strategy is complete without enforcement. Governments around the world now (F) laws on industrial emissions and deforestation. Cities (G) standards on construction, vehicle emissions, and public energy use, ensuring accountability from both corporations and individuals.

On the home front, people (H) on energy usage, reduce water waste, and adopt sustainable habits like using reusable goods. Restaurants and retailers also (I) their packaging and embrace eco-conscious practices. While the impact of each action may seem small, together they matter.

Sustained action begins to (J) positive outcomes—cleaner air, restored green spaces, and healthier communities. Though the journey is long, countries that once (K) difficult reforms now witness progress.

The momentum continues as new groups rise (L) emerging threats—melting ice caps, food insecurity, and biodiversity loss. As more governments (M) environmental codes and companies adapt, there’s growing hope.

If the world commits to reduce harmful habits, (N) practical reforms, and uphold the courage of those who once undertook this challenge early, we can rewrite our future. It’s time to treat climate change not as a distant threat—but as the defining issue of our time.

took on
bring about
to address
enforce stricter
cut down

Q1. Which of the following blanks are suitable for word (1)?

1. J-K
2. F-L
3. E-K
4. A-B-N
5. B-C-D

Q2. Which of the following blanks are suitable for word (2)?

F-H-L
K-L-M
A-N
B-K
A-J-N

Q3. Which of the following blanks are suitable for word (3)?

B-C-L
A-H-I
H-I-K
C-L-N
M-N

Q4. Which of the following blanks are suitable for word (4)?

J-K
F-G-M
C-D-L
H-I
C-L-K

Q5. Which of the following blanks are suitable for word (5)?

A-H-I
C-D-L
K-L-M
H-I
E-N

Directions (6-14): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

While social media has global communication, its misuse continues to raise serious alarms across nations. What began as a platform for connection and free expression has, in many instances, become a breeding ground for misinformation, cyberbullying, and hate speech.

According to DataReportal’s 2024 Global Digital Report, over 5.04 billion people worldwide now use the internet, with 4.80 billion active on social media. Countries like India, Brazil, and the Philippines have seen the highest year-on-year growth in user engagement. However, this increase has also led to a surge in harmful online behavior.

One of the most disturbing trends is the proliferation of hate speech through social platforms. From racist slurs to targeted harassment of minorities, social media has enabled hate to spread faster than ever before. Algorithms often promote controversial or divisive content because it drives engagement, indirectly encouraging inflammatory posts. Studies show that hate-based tweets are 70% more likely to be retweeted than neutral ones.

In response, several countries have introduced legislation to counter this wave of digital toxicity. Germany’s Network Enforcement Act (NetzDG), enacted in 2017, is considered a benchmark policy. It requires platforms like Facebook, YouTube, and Twitter to remove “obviously illegal” content within 24 hours of notification, or face heavy fines. These platforms must also maintain internal records of user complaints and content takedown actions for transparency and future audits.

Country X, recognizing the growing online hostility within its borders, is now adopting a similar model to Germany’s NetzDG. By mandating rapid content takedown, establishing grievance redressal mechanisms, and enforcing penalties for non-compliance, Country X hopes to curb the unchecked spread of hate speech on social media. It has also put in place digital compliance protocols to track violations and ensure swift corrective action.

While such steps are commendable, experts stress that technology alone cannot solve the problem. Promoting digital literacy, encouraging ethical online behavior, and holding platforms accountable are all essential to making social media a safer space.

Q6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about hate-based tweets?

They are immediately flagged and removed by AI tools.
They tend to remain unnoticed by users.
They are less likely to be shared than neutral tweets.
They are significantly more likely to be reshared than neutral content.
They are usually posted by verified accounts only.

Q7. What assumption underlies the policy response of Country X?

Hate speech is more prevalent in offline spaces than online.
All social media platforms are equally effective at moderating content.
Quick takedown and penalties can effectively deter the spread of toxic content.
Citizens will voluntarily reduce their social media usage.
Digital platforms have already self-regulated successfully.

Q8. Identify the CORRECT statement based on the passage.

1. The passage discusses only the positive impacts of social media.
2. Country X has already enacted NetzDG laws.
3. Promoting ethical online behavior is considered crucial in curbing online hate.
  1. Only (I)
  2. Both (I) and (II)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Both (II) and (III)
  5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q9. Choose the synonym of “records” and antonym of “put in place” as used in the passage.

tape – remove
archives – organize
files – dismantle
notes – install
reports – assemble

Q10. Identify the statement(s) that logically explain why hate speech thrives on social media despite existing laws:

1. Social media algorithms prioritize engagement, inadvertently amplifying hateful content.
2. Legal interventions alone are insufficient without parallel social awareness and ethical education.
3. The delayed implementation of regulations in most countries has allowed hate speech to dominate.
  1. Only (I)
  2. Both (I) and (II)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Both (II) and (III)
  5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q11. Which of the following statement(s) reflect the unintended consequences of social media algorithms, as presented in the passage?

- - 1. Algorithms unintentionally create echo chambers that reinforce divisive ideologies.
    2. Platforms reward inflammatory posts with more visibility, leading to a spike in hate speech.
    3. Content moderation systems are being manipulated to suppress neutral information.
      1. Only (I)
      2. Only (II)
      3. Both (I) and (II)
      4. Both (II) and (III)
      5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q12. Which of the following statement(s) challenge the long-term effectiveness of legal interventions like NetzDG?

The compliance of platforms depends heavily on user reports, which may not always be timely or accurate.

Legislation often struggles to keep pace with the evolving tactics of online hate groups.

Removing content does not address the underlying attitudes and beliefs driving hate speech.

Only (I)

Only (III)

Both (II) and (III)

Both (I) and (II)

All (I), (II), and (III)

Q13. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank:

complicated
revolutionized
curtailed
industrialized
jeopardized

Q14. Why are algorithms said to contribute to the spread of hate speech on social media?

They fail to recognize hateful content and instead delete neutral posts.
They are programmed to promote government-backed narratives only.
They prioritize content that triggers engagement, including divisive posts.
They penalize users who report offensive content.
They focus exclusively on advertising-based content moderation.

Directions (15-17): In the following question, few sentences are given, choose the word that best describes the situation.

Q15. (I) As the girl stepped gracefully out of the car, her eyes were instantly drawn to a vibrant advertisement glowing on the nearby billboard.

(II) The boy remained still at his desk, drawn in by a sudden detail in the text that held his focus more tightly than before.

(III) As she walked past the painting, something about its faded colors and hidden signature caught her eye.

ignore
distract
notice
describe
approach

Q16.(I) The test was filled with familiar patterns, each question echoing the kind commonly seen in past exams.

(II) Doctors often rely on abbreviations in prescriptions, as it’s a practice widely accepted and regularly followed in the medical field.

(III) Wearing ID badges in the office has become a routine part of daily work, expected and followed by everyone without question.

frequent
rare
optional
common
personal

Q17.(I) Despite the challenges, she continued to refine her painting day after day, determined to improve her technique.

(II) He practiced the piano for hours, slowly mastering each note with unwavering dedication.

(III) The athlete trained relentlessly, pushing beyond limits to perfect his routine before the big event.

talent
patience
luck
perseverance
hesitation

Q18. Read the situation below and select the idiom that best describes it.

A girl had received two job offers — one with an excellent salary and the other with a supportive work culture. Torn between financial gain and workplace happiness, she struggled to make a decision.

Which word best describes her situation?

skeptical
contemplative
in a quandary
indifferent
analytical

Q19. The following question gives a sentence which has been divided into five parts which may not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as the answer.

1. catalyst that reshapes mindsets,
2. dismantles inequality, and
3. employment, but a powerful
4. drives lasting social transformation
5. education is not merely a means to
  1. BDAEC
  2. EDABC
  3. ECABD
  4. ADEBC
  5. BCAED

Q20. The following question gives a sentence which has been divided into five parts which may not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as the answer.

- - 1. distances like never before, it
    2. while technology has bridged
    3. human connections in a digital age
    4. depth and authenticity of our
    5. also challenges us to preserve the
      1. CBAED
      2. BDCEA
      3. CABED
      4. BAEDC
      5. No rearrangement required

Q21. A sentence with five highlighted words is given in the following question. These words are may not be placed in their proper positions. Select the correct sequence of the highlighted words from the options given below to make a grammatically correct and contextually coherent sentence.

Freedom of question (A) is the cornerstone of a collective (B) democracy, empowering citizens to

expression (C), critique, and contribute (D) to the vibrant (E) conscience of the nation.

DBCEA
CEADB
EACDB
ADCBE
No rearrangement required

may not be placed in their proper positions. Select the correct sequence of the highlighted words from the options given below to make a grammatically correct and contextually coherent sentence.

The energy, innovation (A), and idealism of youth are the driving (B) forces that can redefine (C) a

nation’s future and steer (D) it toward progress and inclusivity (E).

BDEAC
DBEAC
DCBAE
ADCBE
No rearrangement required

Q23. The following question gives a sentence which has been divided into five parts which may not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence, mark option " No rearrangement required " as the answer.

1. societal imperative to foster
2. raising awareness about mental health is
3. not just a medical necessity but a
4. ensure holistic well-being
5. compassion, break stigma, and
  1. BDAEC
  2. EDABC
  3. ECABD
  4. ADEBC
  5. BCAED

Q24. A sentence with five highlighted words is given in the following question. These words are may not be placed in their proper positions. Select the correct sequence of the highlighted words from the options given below to make a grammatically correct and contextually coherent sentence.

As cities ensure (A) to expand rapidly, sustainable urban development (B) becomes essential—not just to meet the spaces (C) of growing populations, but to continue (D) that future generations inherit needs (E) that are livable, inclusive, and environmentally responsible.

DBCEA
CEADB
DBEAC
CBEDA
No rearrangement required

may not be placed in their proper positions. Select the correct sequence of the highlighted words from the options given below to make a grammatically correct and contextually coherent sentence.

In an age of information opinion (A), the media holds imperative (B) power to shape public overload (C), making it immense (D) that it upholds (E) truth, objectivity, and ethical responsibility over sensationalism.

BDAEC
BCAED
CABDE
CDABE
No rearrangement required

Directions (26-28): Given below are two columns with phrases. A part of each phrase in column I is highlighted in bold and may be grammatically or contextually incorrect. Select the appropriate combination to form a correct sentence, and also identify the correct replacement for the incorrect phrase, if any.

Q26.

A-D
B-D, A-E, B – reluctant
A-E, B-F, A- had done
C-F
B-D, C-F, C- went

Q27.

A-D
B-D, A-E,
A-E, B-F,
C-E, A-F, C- quietly
B-D, C-F, B-explains

Q28.

A-D, A- noisily
B-D, A-E,
C-E, B-F, C- soundly
C-E, C-peacefully
B-D, C-F,

Directions (29-38): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

A recent study by the OED Research Center has revealed a surprising contrast between adults and children when it comes to practical knowledge. Unlike traditional assessments that focus on aptitude and analytical abilities, this research emphasized real-life problem-solving and day-to-day decision- making. Participants were presented with situations that mirrored common life experiences—such as handling minor crises, interpreting emotions, and solving everyday challenges. Surprisingly, the results showed that while adults were highly qualified in terms of academic degrees and certifications, their ability to navigate practical situations was notably lower than that of children.

Children, though not formally educated to the same extent, demonstrated remarkable insight, adaptability, and intuition. Their responses were realistic, creative, and grounded in observation. They approached problems with open-mindedness and curiosity—traits that often diminish in adults due to structured thinking and educational systems. This revealed an important distinction: qualifications do not always equate to real-world competence. Adults often rely on theoretical knowledge that doesn’t translate well into spontaneous or practical situations, while children, free from overthinking and academic pressure, tend to grasp and respond to reality more naturally.

The study also pointed to deeper issues in how knowledge is taught and measured. Adults, having spent years in institutions that emphasize grades and credentials, may lose the ability to learn flexibly or think critically beyond a fixed curriculum. On the other hand, children learn through experience, observation, and continuous questioning of their surroundings. Their learning is organic, driven by curiosity rather than the need for validation through marks or degrees.

This research challenges traditional views on intelligence and highlights the limitations of measuring competence solely through academic achievement. It suggests a shift is needed—both in education systems and societal expectations—toward encouraging experiential learning and real-world problem- solving skills. By valuing curiosity, adaptability, and practical understanding, we may better prepare individuals of all ages for the complexities of life. In many ways, the findings remind us that knowledge is not defined by age or education, but by one’s ability to engage with the world meaningfully.

Q29. Which of the following best captures the central paradox highlighted in the study?

Children, despite limited academic exposure, outperform adults in standardized assessments.
Adults’ tendency to overthink is a byproduct of higher intelligence.
Practical intelligence does not always correlate with formal academic success.
Adults often face more complex decisions than children, justifying their poorer performance.
Children are innately superior in emotional and analytical intelligence.

Q30. According to the passage, what could be a potential reason children outperform adults in practical situations?

Children possess an inherent emotional maturity superior to adults.
Adults fail due to lack of exposure to practical situations.
The academic system trains children early in real-life problem-solving.
Children’s unstructured learning fosters better adaptability.
Adults are conditioned to prioritize speed over accuracy.

Q31. Which of the following best explains why adults underperformed in the study, as per the passage?

They lacked access to the same resources provided to children.
They prioritized academic theory over flexible thinking.
Their formal training distorted their intuitive reasoning.
They were more emotionally volatile than children.
The test format favored the thinking patterns of children.

Q32. Which of the following statements is CORRECT according to the passage?

1. Children’s creativity is often shaped by exposure to structured systems.
2. Adults learn better when curiosity drives their learning process.
3. Children demonstrate realism and creativity when solving daily challenges.
  1. Only (I)
  2. All (I), (II), and (III)
  3. Both (II) and (III)
  4. Both (I) and (II)
  5. Only (III)

Q33. Which of the following is INCORRECT based on the information in the passage?

- - 1. Adults’ overreliance on credentials can reduce their critical thinking.
    2. Children benefit from learning systems that emphasize marks.
    3. Educational systems may hinder the natural adaptability of learners.
      1. Only (II)
      2. All (I), (II), and (III)
      3. Both (II) and (III)
      4. Both (I) and (II)
      5. Only (III)

Q34. Determine which of the following statements are true based on the passage:

Adults tend to struggle with practical problem-solving despite their formal education.

The study advocates a change in how intelligence and competence are measured.

Children outperform adults mainly due to their access to advanced digital tools.

Only (I)

Both (I) and (II)

Only (III)

Both (I) and (III)

All (I), (II), and (III)

Q35. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Adults’ structured thinking may restrict their emotional interpretation of situations.

The current educational approach may not fully prepare individuals for real-life unpredictability.

The study implies that lowering academic standards would automatically enhance practical intelligence.

Only (I)

Both (I) and (II)

Only (III)

Both (II) and (III)

All (I), (II), and (III)

Q36. Match the items in Column A with the most appropriate description from Column B, based on the passage.

A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3

Q37. Choose the most suitable word to fill in the given blank.

inclusive
progressive
rigid
creative
dynamic

Q38. Which of the following statements are supported by the passage?

1. The educational system may restrict critical and flexible thinking in adults.
2. Curiosity-driven learning contributes significantly to children’s practical intelligence.
3. Adults outperform children when tasks require emotional interpretation.
  1. Only (I)
  2. Both (I) and (II)
  3. Only (III)
  4. Both (I) and (III)
  5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Directions (39-40): Each question below contains phrases divided across three columns. Choose the correct combination to form a meaningful sentence.

Q39. Which option demonstrates the correct sentence structure?

B-G-I
C-E-L
D-H-J
A-F-K
None of these

Q40. How many complete sentences can be formed by connecting these phrases?

One
Two
Three
None
Four

Reasoning

Directions (1-4): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: Six different cars – A, B, C, D, E, and F – were used for an event. Each car travelled a different distance – 10 km, 12 km, 24 km, 27 km, 33 km and 40 km. Each car had a different number of drivers between the range of 3 to 11. All the information is not necessarily used in the same order as given.

Note: The total distance travelled by each car is exactly divisible by the number of drivers that car has. Car F travelled more distance than Car C. Car D travelled an even number distance. One car travelled distance between the range of distance travelled by Car D and Car A. Car A has the number of drivers which is multiple of 5. Car D has less number of drivers than Car F. Car E travelled less distance than Car

C. Car E travelled a distance which is a multiple of 3. Car C has more number of drivers than Car B. Car D has one driver more than Car E. Car B travelled less distance than Car C. Car A has less number of drivers than Car F. The difference between number of drivers between Car B and Car F is more than 1 but less than 4.

Q1. What is the sum of the number of drivers in Car B and the distance travelled by Car C?

(a) 40

(b) 38

(c) 37

(d) 36

(e) 39

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are true?

Car F travelled an even number distance and has 8 drivers.
Car C has more number of drivers than Car B but travelled less distance than Car B.
Car E has the least number of drivers and travelled 27km
Both I and II
Only I
Only III
Both I and III
Only II
Q3. Which among the following pair of cars travelled the maximum distance and have maximum number of drivers respectively?

Car C, Car F
Car B, Car F
Car B, Car E
Car F, Car B
Car F, Car C
Q4. Which car has 4 drivers and what was the distance travelled by that car?

Car E – 12km
Car D – 24km
Car B – 12km
Car E – 24km
Car F – 40km
Directions (5-8): A word arrangement machine rearranges words given in a certain order based on specific rules in multiple steps. Observe the pattern and answer the questions accordingly.

Input: SYSTEM MEMORY UNIQUE BOTTLE ENERGY Step I: UNIQUE SYSTEM MEMORY ENERGY BOTTLE Step II NQE UIU SSE YTM MMR EOY NRY EEG BTL OTE Step III: BUL EFG EPY MNR NRE NSY OUE STE UJU YUM Step IV: ULB EFG EPY RNM RNE YSN EOU TSE JUU YUM Step V: EFH EOV EPZ JUV RNF RNN TSF ULC YSO YUN

Step V is the last step of the given example. Illustrate the above input arrangement and obtain the steps for the asked input given below:

Input: EDITOR CIRCLE VISION RHYTHM ORANGE

Q5. Which word is second to the right of first word from the left end in Step V?

EJO
URE
HUM
IJO
EJP
Q6. Which among the following is the correct combination of words in the penultimate step?

ROF YRK VTO
VSO IIN RHY
ROE ZRH VTO
SLD URD EJO
OAG DTR EIO
Q7. What is the position of the word “RYH” with respect to “ICE” in Step II?

Sixth to the left
Seventh to the left
Eighth to the left
Immediate right
Immediate left
Q8. Which word is fourth from the right end in Step III?

IDE
RZH
IJN
OAG
OBG
Directions (9-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are 10 flights scheduled to take off from an airport between 4:00pm to 5:00pm. Each flight takes off at 5-minute intervals and is scheduled to land at different places-Delhi, Lucknow, Goa, Pune, Jaipur, Mysore, Chandigarh, Kolkata, Surat and Indore.

Note: No two adjacent slots are vacant.

Flight N takes off five slots before the flight that is scheduled to land in Goa. There are two slots between the flights that are scheduled to land in Goa and Mysore. Flight K takes off two slots after the flight that is scheduled to land in Goa. Flight N takes off two slots before the flight which is scheduled to land in Pune and immediately after Flight O’s slot. There is a vacant slot adjacent to the slot of flight that is scheduled to land in Mysore and Pune. Flight O lands in Chandigarh. Flight T takes off immediately after Flight G’s slot and two slots after the slot in which the flight that is scheduled to land in Pune. Flight L takes off before Flight K and is scheduled to land in Delhi. Flight J takes off before Flight L but not immediately before. Flight J takes off six slots before the flight that is scheduled to land in Surat. Flight J doesn’t land in Kolkata. The flight which is scheduled to land in Surat has slot that is adjacent to Flight S’s slot and the flight which is scheduled to land in Jaipur. Flight D and Flight S doesn’t land in Goa. Flight J, Flight B and Flight N doesn’t land in Lucknow.

Q9. How many flights take off between the Flight J and the flight which is scheduled to land in Lucknow?

Eight
Seven
Nine
Ten
Six
Q10. Which among the following combination is correct?

Flight G – 4:30 pm – Jaipur
Flight D – 5:00 pm – Mysore
Flight S – 4:25 pm – Pune
Flight T – 4:35 pm – Goa
Flight N – 4:15 pm – Indore
Q11. The number of flights take off before Flight G is one more than the number of flights take off after _.

Flight B
Flight T
Flight S
Flight L
Flight D
Q12. Which of the following statement is/are true?

Flight G takes off at 4:20pm
Two flights took off after the flight which is scheduled to land in Mysore.
Flight L takes off before Flight S.
There is a time difference of 25 mins between the flights that are scheduled to land in Kolkata and Goa.
Flight K is not scheduled to land in Lucknow.
Q13. Which flight is scheduled to land in Indore?

Flight N
Flight K
Flight D
Flight B
Flight J
Q14. Eight persons sit around a circular shaped table and face inside. According to English alphabetical order there are at least two letters between the names of two persons who sit adjacent to each other.

T sits third to the left of G. W sits second to the right of V. Two persons sit between V and M. T and M are not immediate neighbours of each other. One person sits between S and K who is an immediate neighbour of G. P and T are immediate neighbours.

Who sits fifth to the right of K?

T
W
S
P
None of these
Directions (15-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Q15. Seven persons—P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V—visited zoo on seven different days of the week starting from Monday to Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. On which day does P visited the zoo?

Statement I: Two persons visited between R and U. T visited two persons after U. V visited before P. Statement II: Q visited before S who visited two persons after U. R visited on Monday. T visited after S. V visited before T. P visited before U.

Statement III: S visited either on Monday or on Sunday. Q visited before V. As many persons visited before Q as after T. V visited after R but before U.

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II and statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data given in both statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
Q16. What will be the code of the words “desert light window” in the given coded language? Statement I: In a certain language, "mirror stone light glass" is coded as “hu rf jk lo”, and "Fan glass green stone" is coded as “hs rf jk mn”

Statement II: In a certain language, "desert clean road" is coded as “hb er po”, and "road jungle leaf clean" is coded as “er bs xc po”

Statement III: In a certain language, "mirror white window road" is coded as “lo vc bg er”, and "light window black" is coded as “bg hu mg”

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II and statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
If the data given in both statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
If the data in statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
Directions (17-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code language:

X$5Y → X is 8m north of Y X&2Y → Y is 4m south of X X@3Y → X is 6m east of Y X^4Y → Y is 6m west of X

Given conditions: D^13F, A@6G, K$1S, S^4T, M@5S, U^8V, G^12N, N&7K, F&4M, D$2U

Q17. What is the direction of Point V with respect to Point G?

North
South-east
North-west
South-west
South
Q18. If Point F is 9m south of Point Y, then what will be the shortest distance between Point Y and Point S?

27m
15m
19m
17m
21m
Q19. If Z&10V, then in which direction is Z with respect to N and what is the total distance travelled from Point S to Point V (via Point D)?

43m, South-west
45m, North-west
44m, West
42m, North
44m, East
Q20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one which doesn’t belong to the group?

V-M
A-D
U-T
F-K
G-S
Q21. Company X launched an online grocery delivery platform in Tier-3 towns to tap into the expanding rural market. Heavy marketing and introductory discounts were offered during the initial months. However, within 4 months, the company shut down the service.

What could be the most possible reason for the business failure?

Lack of reliable internet connectivity in the region.
Consumers preferred buying groceries from local kirana shops.
Logistics and delivery were not cost-effective in low-density areas.
The company did not customize its model based on local needs.
All the above factors collectively led to the service being unsustainable.
Q22. An AI-based logistics company launched a route optimization software for courier services across metro cities. It claimed to reduce fuel consumption, improve delivery speed, and enhance workforce productivity. Within three months, several courier companies subscribed to its services, and the startup secured a round of funding from major investors.

What could be the most possible reason behind the rapid success of this AI-based company?

The software helped reduce fuel and time costs significantly for courier partners.
The company offered affordable subscription plans for small and medium courier firms.
Real-time tracking and predictive delivery features increased customer satisfaction.
It filled a market gap where traditional logistics systems lacked automation.
All the above features collectively made the product commercially viable and scalable.
Q23. The central government recently launched a nationwide campaign called "Clean Skies 2040" focusing on switching public transport to electric vehicles, imposing stricter emission norms on factories, and banning single-use plastics in all major cities. Several environmental groups welcomed the initiative, while industrial associations raised concerns over job losses and compliance costs.

What can be assumed from the developments mentioned in the above statement?

The government is serious about reducing long-term environmental pollution through a multi- pronged strategy.
There is tension between environmental objectives and industrial economic interests.
The ban on plastics was the most widely opposed measure in the campaign.
Only I and II
Only II and III
Only I and III
All of three
Only I
Q24. A health-tech startup launched an AI-powered chatbot to assist patients with basic health queries and early symptom analysis. While it gained popularity in metro cities, the service failed to gain traction in rural and semi-urban areas, and the company scaled back the initiative within a few months.

What could be the most possible reason for the failure of the initiative in rural areas?

The chatbot required internet and smartphone access, which was limited in rural regions.
People were more comfortable consulting local doctors or pharmacists face-to-face.
The AI lacked regional language capabilities and cultural sensitivity.
The startup didn’t build local partnerships to promote the service.
The service failed to build user trust due to linguistic barriers and lack of human interaction.
Q25. The Ministry of Electronics and IT launched a campaign urging citizens to regularly update software and operating systems on their digital devices. The campaign highlights that outdated software is a major reason behind cyberattacks and data breaches. Awareness videos, SMS alerts, and collaborations with tech influencers are being used to reach the public.

Which of the following can be hypothesized from the above statement?

People will begin uninstalling older devices that don’t support updates.
Citizens may become more alert about their digital safety due to the campaign.
Tech influencers can play a crucial role in spreading cybersecurity awareness.
Only I and III
Only II and III
Only I
Only II
All I, II and III
Q26. A reputed IT firm, Company X recently hired a group of software professionals from different cities of India, including Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru. After their joining, the company conducted a mandatory skill assessment test. Surprisingly, a large number of the new employees from Bengaluru scored below average. Following this, Company X temporarily paused all upcoming onboarding sessions specifically for candidates from Bengaluru for two weeks, stating that they will revisit their evaluation process and selection criteria for that region.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the given statement?

Company X is reconsidering its recruitment strategy due to inconsistent performance.
Candidates from Mumbai and Hyderabad performed better in the skill assessment.
The company believes only Bengaluru candidates are unskilled.
Only I and II
Only I
Only II
Only I and III
All I, II and III
Directions (27-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of persons sit in a row and face north. Each of them has a different item. B sits second to the right of the one who has Kite. Three persons sit between A and the one who has Kite. One person sits between A and the person who has clock. Two persons sit between the ones who has clock and box. E sits immediate right of the one who has box. K sits second to the left of E who doesn’t have Kite. As many persons sit between K and the one who has clock as between E and the one who has Pen. The one who has pen sits to the right of the one who has box and second to the left of D. E sits fifth from one of the extreme ends and has pencil. Three persons sit between the ones who has Pins and pencils. Nine persons sit between the ones who has Pins and radio. The one who has Mobile sits fourth to the right of the one who has radio and sits at one of extreme ends of the row. The number of persons sit between the one who has Mobile and A is two more than the number of persons sit between K and C. K has Papers. The one who has mobile sits second to the right of I. Eight persons sit between H and I. H sits third to the right of F.

Q27. Which among the following combinations is/are correct?

I – Radio
C- Box
K- Pins
B- Mobile
D- Papers
Q28. What is the position of the one who has Pen with respect to F?

Tenth to the left
Ninth to the right
Eighth to the right
Seventh to the left
Ninth to the left
Q29. What is the sum of number of persons sit to the left of H and the number of persons sit between E and the one who has Mobile?

10
11
13
12
14
Q30. Who sits exactly between the person who has Pins and the person who has Kite?

The one who has pen
C
The one who has radio
E
The one who has box

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