SBI Clerk 2024 – Mains Question Paper

Directions (1-6): In the following passage, several blanks have been provided, each followed by a set of options. Choose the word that is not suitable to fill the given blank.

Hate is not an (A) emotion—it is cultivated through adverse experiences. Often, a single

painful incident can ignite a feeling of betrayal, injustice, or humiliation, which, if left unresolved, transforms into (B) and eventually, hatred. For instance, a person who faces public ridicule

or emotional abandonment may begin to foster deep hostility not only toward the offender but also toward similar individuals or situations.

This emotion, although reactive, is (C). Hatred distorts perception, clouds judgment, and

disrupts emotional stability. It narrows our capacity to trust, to empathize, and even to hope. Over time, it can evolve into a _________________ (D) state of negativity, affecting relationships, productivity, and mental well-being.

However, it is essential to recognize that hate often masks (E) pain. Rather than suppressing

it or allowing it to fester, individuals must confront its origin. Reflection, honest self-inquiry, and emotional articulation are necessary steps toward healing. Forgiveness—though often misunderstood—is not about excusing the wrong, but about releasing the emotional grip it holds over us.

Understanding hate requires emotional maturity. It is a signal, not a solution. While it may arise naturally, choosing to live with it is (F). The real strength lies in transforming that pain into

insight, and using it to cultivate resilience and compassion. Hate may expose our wounds, but it is through acceptance and understanding that we begin to heal and reclaim our emotional freedom.

Q1. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (A)?

1. inherent
2. pandemic
3. immanent
4. essential
5. all are suitable

Q2. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (B)?

1. all are suitable
2. grievance
3. resentment
4. endeavor
5. ire

Q3. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (C)?

1. destructive
2. all are suitable
3. corrosive
4. incisive
5. perceptive

Q4. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (D)?

1. longing
2. all are suitable
3. resolute
4. persistent
5. obstinate

Q5. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (E)?

1. deferred
2. unaddressed
3. deliberate
4. untreated
5. all are suitable

Q6. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (F)?

1. detrimental
2. noxious
3. all are suitable
4. altruistic
5. obstructive

Q7. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free.

• 1. Not only did the manager approve the changes hastily, but he also neglected to inform the board, causing unrest among stakeholders.
  2. Were she to arrive earlier, she would had seen the presentation from the beginning.
  3. No sooner had the news of the policy leaked than investors began pulling out their capital in haste.
     1. both B and C
     2. Both C and A
     3. Both A and B
     4. only C
     5. None is correct

Q8. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free.

• • • 1. The committee insisted that he leaves immediately, citing breaches of confidentiality and decorum.
      2. Each of the dancers and singers was given an opportunity for showcasing their unique talent during the gala.
      3. It was neither her qualifications nor her connections that were questioned during the rigorous interview process.
         1. both B and C
         2. Both C and A
         3. Both A and B
         4. only C
         5. None is correct

Directions (9-13): Rearrange the following sentences to form a logically coherent and meaningful paragraph. Note: Sentence (G) is fixed in its position.

Sucrose, the last among the three, possesses the most complex chemical structure and is slightly harder to digest, although it remains relatively easy to process.

These three types of sugars can be distinguished based on their content and chemical composition. Glucose, which has the simplest structure, can be directly extracted from corn and is rapidly digested by the human body.

Honey contains varying amounts of fructose and sucrose depending on its botanical source; however, it also includes unique elements that set it apart from other sugars.

The enzymes present in honey originate either from the plants it is derived from or are secreted by bees during the production process.

Fructose, the second type, features a slightly more complex chemical structure than glucose and occurs naturally in fruits.

Glucose, fructose, and sucrose are three primary types of sugars, all of which offer nearly the same caloric value per gram.

What sets it apart are the beneficial enzymes it contains, which aid in breaking down the two sugars into glucose.

Q9. Which of the following is the first sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) H

(c) E

(d) F

(e) D

Q10. Which of the following is the second sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?

(a) B

(b) H

(c) E

(d) F

(e) D

Q11. Which of the following is the third sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) H

(c) E

(d) F

(e) D

Q12. Which of the following is the sixth sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?

(a) B

(b) H

(c) E

(d) F

(e) D

Q13. Which of the following is the fifth sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) H

(c) E

(d) F

(e) C

Directions (14-14): In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.

Q14.A. Light-headedness can sometimes indicative an underlying medical condition, which can lead to a higher chance of experiencing a fall.

B. The tickets for the movie will be available three weeks prior to its release.

C. People were demanding an independent probe and the suspense of several high-level officials.

1. Only A
2. Only A and B
3. Only B
4. Only B and C
5. Only A and C

Directions (15-17): Complete the sentence meaningfully using the best possible starter. Choose the option that most effectively conveys the sequence and impact described in the original passage.

Q15. (I) The president issued a statement yesterday.

(II) Almost immediately following his announcement, the office was filled with a flurry of activity.

(III) The statement highlighted that the pressures of the job were beginning to significantly affect the employees’ mental well-being.

1. As soon as…
2. Not much time has passed…
3. Reading the statements regarding…
   1. Only A
   2. Both A and C
   3. Only C
   4. Both A and B
   5. All A, B and C

Q16. (I) The business deal was finalised quite late, bringing in looming deadlines.

(II) The office atmosphere was tense due to the looming deadlines.

(III) The stress of the deadlines was causing employees to become irritable and exhausted.

1. As looming deadlines…
2. The stressed atmosphere of the deadlines…
3. The atmosphere among employees…
   1. Only A
   2. Both A and C
   3. Only C
   4. Both A and B
   5. All A, B and C

Q17. (I) The team received critical feedback during the quarterly performance review.

(II) The feedback pointed out inefficiencies in workflow and communication gaps.

(III) As a result, the team initiated several internal reforms to improve coordination and productivity.

1. Despite the feedback clearly…
2. The internal reforms implemented…
3. After receiving strong feedback…
   1. Only A
   2. Both A and C
   3. Only C
   4. Both A and B
   5. All A, B and C

Directions (18-19): In the questions below, a sentence is divided into several parts. Select the most appropriate sequence to rearrange the parts into a grammatically correct and contextually coherent sentence.

Q18. (A) hit its smooth, shiny surface,

1. bouncing back light rays that
2. allowing your eyes to see an image that
3. appears reversed from left to right
4. a mirror creates your reflection by
   1. DCBAE
   2. DBCEA
   3. EBADC
   4. EBACD
   5. No rearrangement required

Q19. (A) detox become the new luxury

1. unhurried mornings, and digital
2. the art of rest lies in choosing
3. holidays that truly rejuvenate the
4. sleep-deprived—where quiet landscapes,
   1. CDEBA
   2. BDECA
   3. BCEDA
   4. CBDEA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q20. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is error-free.

• • 1. The government website provide accurate information about policies and regulations.
    2. All attendees were mandated to adhere to the official dress code.
    3. It is important to analyse market trends before making any decisions.
       1. Only C
       2. Both C and A
       3. Both A and B
       4. Both B and C
       5. Only A

Q21. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is grammatically and contextually incorrect.

• • • • 1. The implementation of this application has simplified multiple work processes, thus save us a significant amount of time.
        2. Neither the team leader not his colleagues managed to complete the project within the deadline.
        3. Drinking warm water after waking up in the morning helps strengthen your immune system.

both B and C

both A and B

only C

only A

None is incorrect

Q22. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is incorrect.

1. A day after experiencing moderate rainfall, the city encountered intense downpours that lasted to the weekend.
2. Several universities strive to ensure that scientists are rewarded based on the quality of their work and the number of new insights they generation.
3. Many people are experimenting with chatbots in the hope let artificial intelligence (AI) can enhance their daily lives.
   1. both B and C
   2. only C
   3. both A and B
   4. only A
   5. All are incorrect

Directions (23-30): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

India’s electric vehicle (EV) industry is undergoing a profound transformation. Once marred by scepticism, financial constraints, and infrastructural shortcomings, the sector is now accelerating toward a cleaner, technology-driven future. The most notable momentum is observed in the electric two-wheeler (E2W) segment, where sales have reached a significant 18 million units. This surge is fuelled by a combination of factors: evolving consumer preferences, cost-efficiency, and concerted policy interventions aimed at mainstreaming e-mobility.

The industry’s initial journey was fraught with economic setbacks. High battery costs, limited product availability, and nascent infrastructure impeded early adoption. Traditional automotive giants exercised caution, while start-ups and new entrants struggled with scalability and profitability. However, technological breakthroughs, particularly in battery design, have ushered in a phase of renewed optimism. Enhanced energy density, reduction in dependency on expensive raw materials such as cobalt, and advances in battery recycling have significantly curtailed production costs.

Parallelly, the incorporation of artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) is revolutionising vehicle intelligence. Features like adaptive cruise control, predictive maintenance, and advanced driver assistance systems (ADAS) are redefining user experience, especially among Gen Z consumers who demand innovation, sustainability, and digital integration in mobility solutions.

Government initiatives like FAME-II, EMPS 2024, and Battery-as-a-Service (BaaS) are playing a pivotal role in ecosystem development. With the rollout of over 74,000 EV chargers, including 48,400 fast chargers, India is rapidly addressing range anxiety and enhancing user confidence. These developments are not only catalysing EV adoption but also compelling legacy automakers to pivot, innovate, and invest in electrification.

The ______________ are unmistakable. The traditional internal combustion engine (ICE) sector is being redefined as manufacturers embrace hybrid models, enter EV joint ventures, and realign long-term strategies. The discourse has shifted from “if and why” to “how and when,” reflecting an irreversible momentum.

While challenges persist—especially in rural connectivity, component dependency, and grid readiness—the trajectory is promising. With E2W sales projected to reach 7–9 million by 2030, and electric three-wheelers expected to command up to 75% of market share, India is poised to become a global leader in sustainable mobility.

Q23. Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the passage?

• • 1. The Indian government’s infrastructural and fiscal policies are not only supporting existing EV manufacturers but are also influencing traditional automobile companies to shift strategies.
    2. Technological innovations have not only made EVs cheaper to produce but have also contributed to features that align with changing consumer demands.
    3. The growth of electric vehicles in India has primarily been driven by rural demand and local manufacturing incentives.
       1. Only (I)
       2. Both (I) and (II)
       3. Only (III)
       4. Both (I) and (III)
       5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q24. Identify the statement(s) that is/are factually and contextually CORRECT based on the passage.

• • • • 1. The EV industry in India initially faced setbacks due to cautious investment by established companies and the high cost of batteries.
        2. Artificial intelligence in EVs has been used primarily to enhance battery lifespan and reduce energy consumption during idle periods.
        3. Government policies like FAME-II and EMPS 2024 have been instrumental in overcoming consumer hesitation about switching to electric mobility.

Only (I)

Both (I) and (III)

Only (II)

Both (II) and (III)

All (I), (II), and (III)

Q25. Which of the following statement(s) present an incorrect interpretation of the ideas conveyed in the passage?

The integration of artificial intelligence in electric vehicles caters primarily to the operational needs of logistics and fleet companies rather than individual consumers.

The decline in dependency on materials like cobalt has completely eliminated supply chain issues in EV manufacturing.

The Indian EV market’s rapid growth is largely a result of rural consumers adopting two- and three- wheelers for agricultural use.

Only (I)

Both (I) and (III)

Only (III)

Both (II) and (III)

Only (II)

Q26. Identify the statement(s) that correctly infer the nature of challenges faced by India’s EV sector according to the passage.

The EV industry continues to be hindered primarily by a lack of technological advancement in vehicle software and battery chemistry.

Although much of the ecosystem has matured, rural infrastructure gaps and grid limitations remain significant barriers to full-scale adoption.

High initial costs of EVs and lack of market competition remain the biggest reasons for low consumer interest in electric vehicles.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (III)

(c) Only (II)

(d) Both (II) and (III)

(e) Only (III)

Q27. Which of the following statement(s) reflect an incorrect or skewed interpretation of the role of government policies in India’s EV transition, based on the passage?

(I) The Indian government’s initiatives are mainly focused on subsidising vehicle buyers and offer minimal support for infrastructure development or battery recycling.

(II) Policies like EMPS 2024 are aimed at shifting consumer behaviour through digital education and awareness campaigns rather than providing any material infrastructure.

(III) FAME-II and Battery-as-a-Service are part of an integrated policy framework aimed at increasing EV adoption through financial, infrastructural, and operational support.

(a) Only (I)

(b) Both (I) and (II)

(c) Only (III)

(d) Both (II) and (III)

(e) Only (II)

Q28. Which of the following phrases is most suitable to fill the given blank?

1. technological criticisms
2. ripple effects
3. infrastructure failures
4. operational loopholes
5. manufacturing oversights

Q29. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to “fraught” as used in the passage?

1. equipped
2. composed
3. neutral
4. aligned
5. burdened

Q30. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to “ushered” as used in the passage?

1. obstructed
2. eliminated
3. initiated
4. delayed
5. dissolved

Q31. In each of the questions, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank in the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.

Although the diplomatic overtures appeared conciliatory on the surface, they barely managed to the deep-seated mistrust between the two nations, making the entire engagement seem more like a performative gesture than a genuine attempt to longstanding hostilities.

1. mask, perpetuate
2. address, rekindle
3. mitigate, dismantle
4. conceal, ignite
5. fabricate, intensify

Q32. In each of the questions, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank in the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.

The recent economic survey reveals a worrying trend in which rising urban consumption has failed to

corresponding gains in rural productivity, thereby risking a policy vacuum that could eventually

into a chronic structural imbalance in the national economy.

1. catalyse, escalates
2. justify, collapse
3. translate, ossify
4. induce, fade
5. inflect, evolve

Q33. In each of the questions, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best combination of the words that can fit into the given blank in the same order so to make a grammatically and logically correct statement.

The opposition leader’s fiery rhetoric, though electrifying to the base, failed to the broader electorate that the party could govern effectively and, according to analysts, may have even begun to

the party’s appeal among centrist voters seeking stability.

1. persuade, erode
2. distract, amplify
3. mitigate, dismantle
4. dissuade, bolster
5. impress, enshrine

Q34. In the following question, a sentence with a highlighted phrase is given which may or may not be correct. Choose the correct option to replace the highlighted phrase.

No Sooner have employees, burdened by unrealistic expectations and deprived of support, thrived in environments where empathy is neither practiced nor prioritized.

• 1. Rarely have employees
  2. Employees have rarely
  3. Employees have been scarcely
     1. Only (I)
     2. Both (I) and (III)
     3. Only (II)
     4. Both (I) and (II)
     5. No replacement required

Q35. Read the following sentences carefully and identify which of them use the word "sprig" correctly in context.

• • • 1. She tucked a sprig of rosemary behind her ear before stepping into the kitchen to prepare the festive roast.
      2. The officer handed over a sprig of medals to the soldier during the ceremonial parade.
      3. As the first rays of sunlight touched the soil, a delicate sprig emerged from the ground, promising the arrival of spring.
         1. Only A
         2. Both A & B
         3. Both A & C
         4. All A, B & C
         5. None are correct

Q36. In the following question, a sentence with a highlighted phrase is given which may or may not be correct. Choose the correct option to replace the highlighted phrase.

If the team would have submitted the proposal on time, they could have secured the funding for the project.

If the team had submitted

Had the team submitted

If the team have submitted

Only (I)

Both (I) and (II)

Only (III)

Both (II) and (III)

No replacement required

Directions (37-40): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

The traditional interview process often relies on the candidate’s ability to describe their prior experiences, qualifications, past work duties, and skillsets — an approach that creates a larger barrier to recruitment and selection for most non-native speakers. Managers should consider whether candidates should be tested on their ability to talk or write about their skills, or on their ability to demonstrate these skills in practice. To this end, rather than testing oral or written communication aptitude, companies can adopt innovative ways to test practical and technical on-the-job skills, in which candidates are asked to perform a task and are on their proficiency in execution rather than language fluency.

For example, specific skills assessments such as coding tasks in IT, computational challenges in finance, or portfolio reviews in creative professions or construction would allow candidates to demonstrate their potential contribution to the role. Additionally, some employers work with bilingual managers and assigned mentors who can support refugees in their work transition when needed. Others rely on technology, using language apps designed specifically to teach workers the technical vocabulary required for a given job. In the long term, the investment in language development could allow companies to capitalize on the skills of their multicultural and multilingual workforce, who can better serve their increasingly diverse customer base.

Q37. Which of the following best summarizes the central argument presented in the passage?

1. Traditional interviews are universally effective in assessing a candidate’s communication and job performance skills, especially for native speakers.
2. The interview process should continue to prioritize oral and written communication to maintain professional standards across industries.
3. Recruitment strategies must evolve to emphasize candidates’ practical demonstration of skills over their verbal articulation, especially to support non-native speakers and promote inclusivity.
4. All organizations must adopt a single standardized skill assessment model that eliminates interviews altogether to ensure fairness in selection.
5. Language proficiency tests should be made more rigorous in interviews to ensure only well-spoken professionals are recruited.

Q38. What assumption does the author make about the relationship between language skills and job performance?

1. High language proficiency always results in high job productivity, particularly in technical roles.
2. Language skills are irrelevant in all professional fields and should not be a consideration in recruitment.
3. Fluency in communication may not accurately reflect a candidate’s job capabilities, and overemphasis on it can limit access for capable non-native speakers.
4. Multilingual individuals automatically outperform monolingual individuals due to broader vocabulary and cultural awareness.
5. Employees with poor communication skills will struggle regardless of their technical competency.

Q39. According to the passage, which of the above statements is/are correct?

• 1. The traditional interview process disadvantages non-native speakers by emphasizing language proficiency over job-related capabilities.
  2. Companies that invest in developing the language skills of non-native employees may be better equipped to serve a diverse clientele in the future.
  3. Replacing traditional interviews with standardized language tests is the most effective method to promote inclusivity in hiring.
     1. Only (I) is correct
     2. Only (II) is correct
     3. Both (I) and (III) are correct
     4. Both (I) and (II) are correct
     5. All (I), (II), and (III) are correct

Q40. Choose the appropriate word to fill the given blank.

1. commanded
2. regulated
3. fostered
4. declined
5. evaluated

Directions (41-44): The table given below show total number of fruits (Apples & Mangoes) sold by three shops and the ratio of apples to mangoes sold by these three shops. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: The difference between mangoes and apples sold by shops A is 16.

Q41. Find the difference between total number of mangoes sold by shops A & C together and total number of apples sold by shops A & B together?

1. 56
2. 89
3. 68
4. 87
5. 97

Q42. The average number of apples sold by A, C and D is 32. If the ratio of total number of apples

to mangoes sold by D is p : q and total mangoes sold by D are of total mangoes sold by C, then find the value of ‘q’?

1. 0.5
2. 3
3. 1.5
4. 2
5. 1

Q43. Shop C sold 40% of total available fruits (Apples & Mangoes) and the ratio of total unsold mangoes to sold mangoes by shop C is 5 : p+2, then find the total unsold apples by shop C is what percent of more than total sold mangoes by shop A?

1. 40%
2. 30%
3. 20%
4. 15%
5. 25%

Q44. Shops C purchased each apple and mango at Rs 10 & Rs. 15, and he sold all fruits at profit of 40%. Find the total profit of received by C (C sold all purchased fruits)?

1. 612 Rs.
2. 556 Rs.
3. 672 Rs.
4. 652 Rs.
5. 692 Rs.

Directions (45-49): Read the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below. The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total students (boys and girls) in five different schools.

Q45. The total number of students in schools B and D together is what percentage more or less than the total number of students in school E?

1. 12.5%
2. 66.67%
3. 33.33%
4. 25%
5. 50%

Q46. The difference between the total number of boys and girls in school C is 170 (boys < girls). If the total number of boys in school B is 230 more than that of school C, then find the ratio of boys to girls in school B.

1. 7:8
2. 4:7
3. 7:9
4. 9:7
5. 8:3

Q47. The total number of students in school F is 25% more than that in C. The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in school F is 19:12. If the number of girls in schools F and E together is 1935, then find the difference between the number of boys in schools E and F.

1. 285
2. 305
3. 325
4. 270
5. 245

Q48. 25% of the total number of students in school A who participated in dance, and the rest participated in chess. The number of students who participated in chess in school E is 40 more than half of the students who participated in chess in school A. Find the average number of students who participated in dance.

1. 1200
2. 920
3. 510
4. 540
5. 870

Q49. Find the central angle corresponding to the total number of students in B and D together (in degree)?

1. 90
2. 108
3. 120
4. 135
5. 160

Q50. Two roots of equation x2 – Px + 84 = 0 is ‘a’ and ‘b’, and a-b = 5. Quantity I: Value of 2P

Quantity II: Value of b2 – a + 1

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q51. A bag contains x black marbles, x+10 white marbles and x+20 yellow marbles. The probability of drawing one white marble randomly is 1/6 more than probability of drawing one black marble randomly.

Quantity I: Total number of yellow marbles in the bag.

Quantity II: 40

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Directions (52-54): There are two series I and II given below, and both series follows the same pattern. Find the missing terms of series II and answer the following questions.

I: 386, 194, 98, 50, 26, 14, 8

II: 834, 418, P, Q, R, S, 15

Q52. Which of the following statement/s is or are definitely true?

1. Only I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II
4. All I, II and III
5. Only I and III

Q53. Find the 50% of Q + R?

1. 80
2. 75
3. 60
4. 107
5. 100

Q54. Which of the following statement/s is or are definitely true?

• 1. Sum of P and R is odd number
  2. Sum of P and R is completely divisible by 4
  3. Sum of R and S is less than 4th term of series I
     1. Only II and III
     2. Only I
     3. Only II
     4. All I, II and III
     5. Only I and III

Directions (55-57): There are two series I and II given below, and both the series follow different patterns. A and B are missing terms of I & II respectively. Find the value of A and B, and answer the questions given below.

I: 16, A, 10, 21, 85, 681

II: 44, 52, 64, 80, B, 124

Q55. Which of the following statement/s is or are correct?

• • • 1. A is a perfect square
      2. B = 10A
      3. B÷(A+1) = 10
         1. Only (ii) and (iii)
         2. Only (i) and (ii)
         3. Only (i)
         4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
         5. Only (i) and (iii)

Q56. Find the value of 4A+2B?

1. 218
2. 418
3. 236
4. 136
5. 256

Q57. Which of the following statement/s is or are true?

• 1. When 69 added in B, then the resultant becomes perfect square
  2. Value of A is a prime number
  3. 25 is a factor of (B+25)
     1. Only (ii) and (iii)
     2. Only (i) and (iii)
     3. Only (i)
     4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
     5. Only (i) and (ii)

Directions (58-61): The bar graph given below shows percentage distribution of total students (boys + girls) appeared in three exams A, B and C. The bar graph also shows percentage of students (boys + girls) passed in these three exams out of total students (boys + girls) appeared in particular exam. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.

Note: Total number of students appeared in three exams A, B and C = 900

Total number of students appeared in any exam = students passed + students did not pass.

Q58. Find the average number of students who did not pass all three exams?

1. 136
2. 156
3. 168
4. 148
5. 126

Q59. Which of the following statement/s is or are correct?

• 1. Total number of students who did not pass the exam B are multiple of 9.
  2. Total students who passed the exam A & B together > Total students who passed the exam B & C together
  3. 50% of students who did not pass the exam A are equal to ¹th of number of students who did not

6

pass the exam B

• • 1. Only III
    2. Only II
    3. Only I and III
    4. Only I and II
    5. All I, II and III

Q60. The average number of students passed in exam A, B and D is 150, and 70% of total students appeared in exam D are not pass the exam. If boys and girls who did not pass the exam D are equal and girls who passed the exam D are 40% of students who passed exam B, then find the total boys who appeared in exam D?

1. 282
2. 308
3. 316
4. 318
5. None of these

Q61. 40% of total students who appeared in exam B are girls and 80 girls did not pass the exams out of total girls appeared in exam B. Find the difference between number of girls who passed the exam B and number of boys who did not passed the exam B?

1. 100
2. 90
3. 80
4. 60
5. 110

Q62. Four years ago, the ratio of ages of Sonam and Niharika was 5:7. 12 years hence, the ratio between the ratio of ages of Sonam and Niharika will be 9:11. The present age of Sonam and Niharika are X years and Y years respectively.

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q63. Given, ‘a’ and b are two distinct positive integers such that 4b + 2a = 24 and Quantity I: value of 2a

Quantity II: value of b

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q64. The average of three numbers P, Q, and R is 16, and another number S is 9 more than the average of Q and R. Find the value of 2S + P.

1. 58
2. 48
3. 66
4. 56
5. Can not be determined

Q65. I: 3x² – 16x + 5 = 0

II: 2y² – 7y + 3 = 0

1. x < y
2. x > y
3. x ≤ y
4. x ≥ y
5. x = y or relation cannot be determined

Q66. 50% of the solid sphere is melted to form cubes of sides (64/336)th of the radius of the sphere. If the curved surface area of the sphere is 5544 sq. cm. Find the maximum number of cubes that can be formed.

1. 321
2. 278
3. 289
4. 309
5. 303

Q67.

1. x < y
2. x > y
3. x ≤ y
4. x ≥ y
5. x = y or relation cannot be determined

Q68. I: 3×2 -5x -2 = 0

II: 2y2 -3y +1 = 0

1. x < y
2. x > y
3. x ≤ y
4. x ≥ y
5. x = y or relation cannot be determined

Q69. Vessel P contains 56 liters of a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:1, and vessel Q contains 40% water and the rest milk. 25% of mixture Q and 60% of mixture P are taken out and poured into empty vessel R. If the ratio of water to milk in vessel R is 52:141, respectively, then find how much milk was taken out from vessel Q (in liters).

1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. 4
5. 5

Q70. is a mixed fraction and the whole number P is prime number. The denominator is Q, which is a multiple of 2. The product of the whole number and the denominator is 18. If the product of the denominator and numerator is 24, then find the value of b.

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
5. 5

Q71. P and Q can complete 3/2 times the work in 9 days. R (working twice of efficiency) and P together can complete the work in 5 days. Find the time (in days) taken by P, Q, and R (working twice of efficiency) together to complete 20% more of the work.

1. 12
2. 14
3. 18
4. 8
5. Can’t be determined

Q72.

Quantity I: Find the value of y.

Quantity II: Find the value of x.

1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q73. A train can cross half of a platform with 0.4 of its initial speed in 30 seconds. If the length of the platform had been three times the length of the train, then the train could cross the whole platform with its initial speed in 24 seconds. Find the ratio of the original length of the platform (in meters) and the initial speed of the train (in m/sec).

1. 11:2
2. 12:1
3. 4:5
4. 5:9
5. 1:9

Directions (74-78): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the percentage or number of visas granted by country A out of the total number of visa applications received from P, Q, and R. The table also shows the percentage of visas granted to males out of the total number of visas granted.

Note: Total number of applications received = Number of applications granted + Number of applications rejected.

Q74. In Q, the total number of females rejected for visas is 66.67% more than that of males. If the difference between the males and females rejected visas from Q is 16.67% of the total number of visas granted from R, then find the applications received from Q.

1. 12500
2. 8000
3. 10000
4. 11000
5. 14500

Q75. In P, the total number of visas granted to females is 7200. Find the difference between the total number of visas rejected from P and the total number of visas granted to males from Q.

1. 6000
2. 3000
3. 5000
4. 7000
5. 4000

Q76. There are two types of visas granted from R, i.e., X and Y. The ratio of X to Y types of visas granted to males is 7:5, and the Y types of visas granted to females is one-fifth that of males. Find the ratio of the total X types to total Y types of visas granted from R.

1. 1:4
2. 2:1
3. 1:2
4. 2:3
5. 3:2

Q77. The total number of visas granted from S is 500 more than the average number of visas granted from Q and R. The number of visas granted to males from S is twice the difference between the number of visas granted to males and females from Q. Find the number of visas granted to females from S.

1. 1800
2. 1200
3. 1500
4. 2000
5. 1400

Q78. The total number of visas granted from all three countries is 3.5 times the total number of visas granted to males from R. The total number of visas granted to females in P is how many more or less than Q?

1. 3080
2. 2450
3. 3120
4. 2990
5. 2840

Directions (79-83): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

The total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football are in the ratio of 5:3, and the total number of boys who played volleyball is twice the number of girls who played football. The number of girls who played volleyball is 30 less than that of boys. The total number of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160, and the total number of boys who played football is 25% more than the total number of girls who played hockey. The total number of boys who played all three sports is 295.

Q79. The number of girls who played volleyball is what percentage more or less than the total number of boys played football?

1. 20%
2. 12.5%
3. 16.67%
4. 18%
5. 10%

Q80. Find the ratio of the total number of boys and girls together who played volleyball to the total number of boys who played hockey and football together.

1. 5:7
2. 6:5
3. 7:4
4. 4:3
5. 4:9

Q81. Find the difference between the total number of girls who played all three sport and the total number of boys and girls together who played football.

1. 50
2. 80
3. 75
4. 60
5. 100

Q82. The total number of boys who played chess is 20% more than the total number of girls who played hockey. If the total number of girls who played chess is twice the number of boys who played football, then find the difference between the total number of boys and girls who played chess.

1. 92
2. 88
3. 78
4. 110
5. 75

Q83. The ratio of the total number of girls who played cricket to the total number of boys who played football is 11:15. If the total number of boys and girls together who played cricket is 60% of those who played volleyball, then find the number of boys who played cricket.

1. 72
2. 79
3. 74
4. 71
5. 77

Directions (84-88): What comes at the place of question (?) mark. You are not required to calculate the exact value.

Q84.

1. 12
2. 33
3. 42
4. 23
5. 52

Q85. 14.012-?2+7.982=5.01×47.12

1. 1
2. 7
3. 5
4. 11
5. 14

Q86.

1. 14
2. 32
3. 20
4. 8
5. 42

Q87.

1. 35
2. 25
3. 20
4. 15
5. 40

Q88.

1. 81
2. 1
3. 9
4. 25
5. 49

Directions (89-90): The following questions are accompanied by two statements (A) and (B). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

Q89. What is the value of a two–digit number?

• 1. The sum of its digits is 21 and product of its digits is 110.
  2. The sum of its digits is 5 and on reversing the digits of the original number, new number obtained is 27 less than the original value.
     1. Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
     2. Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
     3. Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions.
     4. Either statement A or statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
     5. Statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q90. What is the ratio of father’s age to his son’s age after 5 years.

• • • 1. The ratio of present age of father to his son is 8:5 and 12 years before it was 5: 2.
      2. Father is 24 years older than his son and the product of their ages is 256.
         1. Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement B alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
         2. Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement A alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
         3. Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions.
         4. Either statement A or statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
         5. Statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q91. Statement: In a recent national policy announcement, the government mandated that all private companies with over 100 employees must ensure at least 30% female representation in their leadership roles by 2027. This move is expected to reduce the gender gap in corporate governance. However, some critics argue that without structural support like affordable childcare and safe transportation, achieving this target may be difficult.

Based on the above statement, which of the following can be inferred?

The government is taking measures to promote gender equality in corporate leadership.

Private companies are not currently required to ensure any female representation.

Supporting infrastructure is crucial for the success of gender-related policy goals.

Only I is correct

Only III is correct

Both I and III are correct

Both II and III are correct

All I, II, and III are correct

Q92. The National Digital Strategy 2025 includes major investments in AI research and its ethical use. It supports transparent algorithms and AI applications in sectors like healthcare and education. Civil rights groups, however, worry about weak regulations against AI misuse.

Which of the following statements can be inferred?

1. AI integration has already led to widespread improvements in all public sectors across the country.
2. The strategy includes clear and strict regulations to address AI-related ethical concerns.
3. The public has fully accepted AI, and there are no major concerns about its misuse.
4. The government is expanding AI use, while concerns over regulations reflect awareness of risks.
5. The strategy promotes AI in services, ensures strong regulations, and reflects stakeholder concern.

Directions (93-95): Here, a question is followed by two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements carefully and give answer:

Q93. Six persons F, K, M, N, O, P – sit in a row facing north. What is the position of F with respect to O?

Statement I: Three persons sit between N and M. P sits second to the right of O. K sits immediate left of P.

Statement II: M sits second from an extreme end. One person sits between M and N. P sits adjacent to M but to the right of O. F sits third to the right of K.

1. Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer.
2. Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
3. Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.
4. Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
5. Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q94. Six persons A, B, C, D, E, F – sit around a circular table facing inside. Who sits immediate right of F?

Statement I: C sits second to the right of B. D sits immediate left of B. E and F are immediate neighbors.

Statement II: A sits immediate left of C. D sits second to the left of A. Two persons sit between B and E.

1. Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer.
2. Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
3. Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.
4. Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
5. Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q95. Six persons K, L, M, N, O, P – live on different floors of a six-floor building where lowermost floor is numbered as 1, above it is 2 and so on. Who lives on 4th floor?

Statement I: P lives just below M. L lives above M and O. M lives on odd numbered floor. Two persons live between K and L. N lives just below O.

Statement II: M lives three floors above L. Number of persons above M and below P are same. Two persons live between K and N.

1. Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer.
2. Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
3. Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.
4. Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
5. Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Directions (96-100): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions: Nine persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S go to different cities on three different dates – 7, 14, 28 of three different months – January, April and October. The cities are – Delhi, Pune, Surat, Ambala, Patna, Shimla, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra.

M goes on an even date in April. Three persons go between M and the one who goes to Jaipur. P goes just before the one who goes to Jaipur. Five persons go between P and K. Number of persons go before K is same as the number of persons go after the one who goes to Shimla. Four persons go between S and the one who goes to Shimla. K and R go in the same month. Q goes just after the one who goes to Surat. P does not go to Surat. Three persons go between Q and the one who goes to Lucknow. One person goes between O and the one who goes to Delhi. One person goes between the persons who go to Lucknow and Pune. The one who goes to Ambala goes just before the one who goes to Patna. L goes after O.

Q96. Four of the following five are similar in a certain a certain way and belong to a group, which of the following is dissimilar to others?

1. P – Shimla
2. L – Patna
3. S – Delhi
4. K – Lucknow
5. Q – Pune

Q97. Which of the following is true about L?

1. 7th April
2. 28th January
3. 28th April
4. 14th January
5. 7th October

Q98. O goes to which of the following city?

1. Ambala
2. Patna
3. Agra
4. Surat
5. Shimla

Q99. Which of the following is correct?

• 1. K goes to Pune
  2. M goes before N
  3. S goes on 14th October
     1. Only I
     2. Only II
     3. Only III
     4. Only I and II
     5. Only I and III

Q100. How many persons go between N and R?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six
5. None of the above

Directions (101-105): Study the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

In a certain code language

"Are Base Boost Plant" is coded as “$5T #6U $7U $6P” "Light on Ease Stops" is coded as “$6J #3Q #7U $6R”

"Wisdom players shine high" is coded as “#8Q $9T $7P #5I” "Time Think Learn Tech" is coded as “#6O $6P $7T #5E”

Q101. What is the code of the word “Energetic”?

1. $7K
2. $13R
3. #13K
4. #7K
5. $13K

Q102. What is the code for word pair “Brave Knight”?

1. #7X #7J
2. $8Y #8J
3. $6X #7J
4. $7X #7J
5. None of these

Q103. Which among the following word can be coded as “$6T”?

1. Games
2. Grand
3. Glory
4. Gloves
5. None of these

Q104. What is the code of the word “Guests”?

1. #8V
2. $7V
3. #8S
4. $7X
5. None of these

Q105. Which among the following statement is/are correct?

• 1. Playful is coded as “$9W”
  2. “On place” is coded as “#3Q $8E”
  3. “#8G” is the code of “Manner”
     1. Only I
     2. Both I and II
     3. Both I and III
     4. Only III
     5. Only II

Q106. If we pick the third letter from left end from each word of an option, and this is done for all options, then from which of the following options, a four-letter meaningful word can be formed?

1. PLANT, BRAVE, STONE, QUICK
2. LIGHT, SHINE, SWEET, SPICE
3. CRANE, FRAME, GIANT, FLAME
4. SPINE, PAPER, EVERY, PARTY
5. TRACK, SPEAR, GLASS, WATER

Q107. Statement: A recent survey by the State Education Board revealed that students in rural areas showed a noticeable improvement in academic performance after the introduction of mobile learning vans equipped with digital content. These vans provided interactive lessons, subject-wise quizzes, and career guidance sessions in regions where schools lacked basic infrastructure.

What could be the possible reason for the improvement in students’ performance?

1. Students in rural areas were already performing better than urban students.
2. The mobile vans offered personalized coaching by reputed private tutors.
3. Interactive digital content made learning more accessible and engaging.
4. The State Board introduced new textbooks for the academic year.
5. None of these

Q108. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your answer from the options provided.

Statements:

• 1. Global temperatures have risen sharply over the past few decades.
  2. Melting of polar ice caps and rising sea levels have been observed across the globe.
     1. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect
     2. Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect
     3. Both statements are independent causes
     4. Both statements are effects of a common cause
     5. None of these

Directions (109-113): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square table in a such a way that four persons sit at the corners of the table and four sit at the middle of each side of the table. The persons sit at the corners face inside and the persons sit at the sides face outside. They all related to each other as a family.

B’s spouse sits third to the right of B. B faces inside. One person sits between B’s spouse and C (from either side). A’s only daughter sits immediate left of C. Three persons sit between A’s only daughter and A’s sister (from either side). G’s father sits third to the left of A. A does not face inside. Both the immediate neighbors of G are married to each other. Two persons sit between G and E(from either side). G’s brother sits third to the right of E. H is not father of G. D sits third to the left of G’s sibling.

Q109. Who among the following is sister-in-law of G?

• • • 1. The one who sits second to the left of F
      2. The one who sits opposite to E
      3. H’s sister
         1. Only III
         2. Only I and II
         3. Only I
         4. Only II and III
         5. None of the given

Q110. Who among the following is daughter-in-law of F?

1. B
2. A
3. H
4. E
5. D

Q111. Four of the following five are similar in a certain group and related to a group, which of the following is not related to the group?

1. F-C
2. B-A
3. E-D
4. G-H
5. C-A

Q112. What is the relation of F with respect to the one who sits second to the right of B?

1. Son-in-law
2. Brother-in-law
3. Sister
4. Daughter
5. Wife

Q113. How many persons sit between D and B’s sister (from either side)?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Directions (114-115): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, %, & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

A@B means A is not greater than B A#B means A is not smaller than B

A$B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B A%B means A is neither greater nor equal to B A&B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B

Now, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, and III is/are definitely true, and give your answer accordingly.

Q114. Statements: P @ Q % M % R $ G; T % R @ V % E @ S; V $ C # B & N

Conclusions:

• 1. S & Q
  2. E # B
  3. P % C
     1. Only I and II
     2. Only II and III
     3. Only I
     4. Only I and III
     5. All I, II, III

Q115. Statements: A $ O # W # H & B; B & Y # T $ K # L; F % N @ C $ L

Conclusions:

• • • 1. F @ O
      2. C & H
      3. N @ L
         1. Only I
         2. Only II
         3. Only III
         4. Only I and II
         5. Only II and III

Q116. In the numbers ‘865499’ and ‘761829’, if even digits are decreased by 2 and odd digits are decreased by 1, then find the sum of non-repeated digits across the two numbers.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 0
5. 8

Directions (117-121): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: In Edtech Adda247, Different YouTube classes scheduled viz. Two Banking, One SSC and Two UPSC with each session being for 1 hour. Also 2 hours of celebration scheduled on this day on completing 5m subscribers of SSCADDA. These sessions are scheduled from 9am to 6pm. Two breaks are there between these sessions with each of 1 hour. None of the same classes are scheduled consecutively including breaks like- If Banking class is scheduled at 11am then next banking class is neither scheduled at 10am or 12noon slot. Lunch break is held before Tea break. No breaks taken consecutively.

The numbers of slots are scheduled before Tea is same as the numbers of slots are scheduled after one of the UPSC classes. No breaks are scheduled at first and last hour slot. Sourav left the office in celebration hour at 3.15pm for few minutes. Banking class is scheduled just before lunch but after 2 slots of SSC class. None of the UPSC class is scheduled after Tea.

Q117. How many slots are held between the both banking classes?

1. Four
2. None
3. One
4. Three
5. Two

Q118. Which of the following class is scheduled from 10am to 11am?

1. Banking
2. SSC
3. UPSC
4. Either Banking or SSC
5. Either SSC or UPSC

Q119. Which of the following class is scheduled just before Lunch?

1. Either Banking or SSC
2. Banking
3. UPSC
4. SSC
5. Either SSC or UPSC

Q120. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

1. 9am-10am – Banking
2. 11am-12pm – UPSC
3. 3pm-4pm – Tea
4. 12pm-1pm – Lunch
5. 3pm-5pm – Celebration

Q121. How many hours gap between SSC class and UPSC class (from their starting time)?

1. 2 hours
2. 3 hours
3. 4 hours
4. 5 hours
5. None of the above

Directions (122-126): A word arrangement machine when given an input line of Words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The example of input and its rearrangement, is given below:

Input: AIR PIN HAT FAN GUN NET Step I: AIR PIN HAT GUN NET FAN Step II: HAT AIR PIN NET GUN FAN Step III: PIN HAT AIR NET GUN FAN Step IV: PINHAT AIRNET GUNFAN Step V: AHINPT AEINRT AFGNNU Step VI: BGJMQS BDJMSS BEHMOT

Step VI is the last step of the given example. Illustrate the above input arrangement and obtain the steps for the asked input given below:

Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL

Q122. Which of the following is fifth word from right end in step III?

1. LEN
2. TIL
3. JAM
4. CAR
5. DEN

Q123. Which of the following is fourth word from left end in step II?

1. JAM
2. CAR
3. DEN
4. TIL
5. None of these

Q124. In which of the following step, “EDFKOM BAJKUS” is found exactly in this order?

1. Step III
2. Step II
3. Step VI
4. Step V
5. Step IV

Q125. Which of the following is the penultimate step?

1. DEELNN BCILTT ACEJMR
2. DEELNN ABILTT ACEJMR
3. CEDLNN ABILTT ACEJMR
4. DEELMN BBILTT ACEJMR
5. DEELNN NBILTT BCEJMR

Q126. Which of the following element is second to the left of the word which is fifth from left end in first step?

1. BAT
2. CER
3. LEN
4. DEN
5. TIL

Directions (127-130): There are two/three rows given, and to find out the resultant of a particular row, follow the conditions mentioned:

• 1. If an even number is followed by another even number (not prime), the resultant will be the difference of both the numbers.
  2. If an even number is followed by an odd number (not prime), the resultant will be the difference of the both the numbers multiplied by 2.
  3. If an even number is followed by a prime number, the resultant will be the sum of both the numbers.
  4. If an odd number is followed by another odd number (not a perfect square), the resultant will be the difference of both the numbers added by the greater number.
  5. If an odd number is followed by another even number (not a perfect square), the resultant will be the sum of both the numbers.
  6. If an odd number is followed by perfect square number, the resultant will be the sum of both the numbers divided by 2.

Q127. What will be the value of X, if the sum of resultant of both the rows is 53?

R1: 4 3 25

R2: 8 7 X

(a) 32

(b) 24

(c) 23

(d) 22

(e) 29

Q128. What will be the value if the difference between the resultants of Row I and Row II, will be added by resultant of Row III?

R1: 15 17 12

R2: 12 11 25

R3: 13 10 9

(a) 12

(b) 10

(c) 23

(d) 13

(e) 14

Q129. What will be the value of the sum of the resultants of all rows?

R1: 21 49 15

R2: 14 9 4

R3: 11 5 8

1. 87
2. 84
3. 80
4. 82
5. 86

Q130. What will be the value, if the difference between the resultant of Row I and Row II is multiplied by the resultant of Row III?

R1: 8 2 25

R2: 13 5 12

R3: 21 9 24

1. 107
2. 106
3. 117
4. 112
5. 125

Directions (131-135): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:

Seven persons named T, G, H, Y, D, K and L deposit some amount of money (in rupees; integer value) (but not in the same order as given) on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday to their bank accounts. No person deposit same amount of money.

More than three persons deposit between K and D and one of them deposits the lowest money. Average of the highest and lowest sum of money is rupees 1625 which is rupees 25 more than the money deposited by T who deposits just after K. Equal number of persons deposited the money before and after T and G respectively and ratio between the money of T and G is 10:7. The money deposited on Friday is highest but not deposited by Y and H. Money deposited on Monday is thrice the difference between the money deposited on Wednesday and Saturday. The number of persons deposit money before H is less than the number of persons deposit money after H and his money is rupees 20 less than the money deposited on Tuesday. One of the persons deposits rupees 1050. Ratio between the money deposited on Thursday and Sunday is 6:5 respectively.

Q131. What is the difference between the money deposited by Y and K?

1. Rupees 480
2. Rupees 220
3. Rupees 120
4. Rupees 210

Q132. On which of the following day, the third highest amount of money is deposited?

1. Tuesday
2. Thursday
3. Monday
4. Wednesday
5. None of these

Q133. Which of the following persons deposited money just before H?

1. T
2. G
3. The one who deposits four days before L
4. None of these
5. The one who deposited money on Thursday

Q134. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, which among the following does not belong to the group?

1. K-H
2. Y-G
3. L-D
4. T-Y
5. K-Y

Q135. Who among the following deposit the second highest money?

1. T
2. H
3. G
4. L
5. D

Q136. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your answer from the options provided.

Statements:

• 1. Several government schools across rural India have adopted smart classrooms and digital learning tools.
  2. The government launched a national program to enhance digital infrastructure in education.
     1. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect
     2. Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect
     3. Both statements are independent causes
     4. Both statements are effects of a common cause

Q137. Statement: To tackle rising electronic waste, the government has enforced strict e-waste rules for mobile phone brands and retailers. These include mandatory recycling and penalties for non- compliance. The goal is to promote sustainable disposal of mobile devices.

Which of the following are not in line with the given statement?

• • • 1. A leading smartphone brand started a drive to collect used handsets for recycling.
      2. A tech portal launched a tool to compare discounts on smartphones.
      3. Several retailers were fined for not following the new e-waste guidelines.
         1. Only I and II
         2. Only II
         3. Only III
         4. Only I
         5. None of them

Q138. India has committed to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070 and is actively investing in clean energy solutions such as solar parks, green hydrogen, and electric mobility. The government is also promoting public-private partnerships to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.

Which of the following statements is not in line with the above context?

1. India is encouraging the use of electric vehicles by offering subsidies and developing charging infrastructure.
2. Solar power generation is being expanded to reduce the load on coal-based power plants.
3. The government is planning to increase coal production to ensure uninterrupted power supply till 2100.
4. Public sector companies are collaborating with private firms to explore clean hydrogen fuel.
5. India aims to reduce its carbon intensity and promote sustainable development.

Q139. Statement: Company X and Company Y are competitors in the smartphone market. Last year, Company Y overtook Company X in sales, despite Company X launching a highly rated flagship device. Analysts attribute Company Y’s growth to rural expansion, attractive exchange offers, and effective customer loyalty programs.

What could be the possible reason for Company Y’s increase in market share over Company X?

1. Company X’s high-end model was unaffordable for most users.
2. Company Y offered targeted incentives and expanded its rural presence.
3. Company Y collaborated with global brands for premium devices.
4. Company X reduced production of budget phones to focus on innovation.
5. None of these

Q140. With the rising air pollution levels in metro cities, many residents have started using air purifiers at home. Sales of indoor plants have also increased as people try to improve indoor air quality naturally.

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?

1. People are becoming more health-conscious due to worsening air quality
2. The sale of air purifiers is declining due to the popularity of indoor plants
3. Metro cities are now free from air pollution due to these measures
4. Only natural ways are effective to fight air pollution
5. None of these

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