SBI Clerk Prelims 2024 – Question Paper

Directions (1-5): In the sentence below, four words have been highlighted which may be misspelt or inappropriate in their usage. Mark the erroneous word as the answer and if all the words are correct in their spellings and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as the answer.

Q1. Demonetization (A) taught (B) us to use various online platforms (C) for transactions (D).

1. demonetization
2. taught
3. platforms
4. transactions
5. All are correct

Q2. She started (A) working on her novel (B) last year and has already completed (C) three chapters (D).

1. started
2. novel
3. completed
4. chapters
5. All are correct

Q3. The teacher expressed (A) her appereciation (B) for the students’ hard work by praising (C) their

efforts (D) in front of the whole class.

1. expressed
2. appereciation
3. praising
4. efforts
5. All are correct

Q4. Despite their differences, they remained close friends, always supports each other through thick and thin.

1. differences
2. remained
3. friends
4. supports
5. All are correct

Q5. The teacher tried to drawn students into the discussion by asking extremely thought-provoking questions.

1. drawn
2. discussion
3. extremely
4. questions
5. All are correct

Q6. Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

1. The engineer designed a new software too improve cybersecurity.
2. The students revised its lessons before the final exam.
3. The volunteers planted trees to combat deforestation.
4. She drink herbal tea every night to improve digestion.
5. The team practiced hard before the championship’s match.

Q7. Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

1. The tourists explored the ancient ruins during their vacation.
2. The biologists studying marine life in the deep ocean.
3. She wakes down early to prepare breakfast for her family.
4. The chef experimented with new spices to created a unique dish.
5. The sun sets behind the mountains, painting the sky in warming colors.

Q8. Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

1. The smartphone battery last longer after the recent update.
2. The professor explains complex concepts use simple examples.
3. The river flows thorough the valley, providing water to nearby villages.
4. The doctor advised him/her to exercise regular for better heart health.
5. The athlete broke the previous record in the 100-meter sprint.

Q9. Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

1. The flight departs from the international terminal on noon.
2. The telescope captured an stunning image of a distant galaxy.
3. He reads a novel before going too bed every night.
4. The bakery sells freshly baked bread every morning.
5. The thunderstorm caused a power outage in the entirely town.

Q10. Identify the correct sentence from the options given below.

1. The astronauts conducting research aboard the space station.
2. The activists campaigned for equal education opportunities.
3. The stock market fluctuates based in global economic trends.
4. Historians study ancient manuscripts too understand past civilizations.
5. The pianist perform at the concert hall every Saturday.

Directions (11-16): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by a letter. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

In 2021, a dangerous heat wave struck Northern America, leading to extreme temperatures

(A) many surrounding regions. The heat wave caused record-breaking temperatures,

(B) some areas experiencing over 45°C. The intense heat affected the environment and public health severely.

Wildfires spread rapidly, destroying forests and wildlife habitats. (C) firefighters worked tirelessly, the dry and hot conditions made it difficult to control the flames. Many people had to evacuate their homes, and emergency services were stretched (D) their limits.

The heat wave also impacted health services, with hospitals seeing a rise in heat-related illnesses, especially (E) vulnerable groups like the elderly and children. Authorities advised everyone to stay indoors and remain hydrated.

Experts pointed out that climate change might have contributed to this extreme event. They stressed the need for urgent actions (F) prevent similar disasters in the future.

Q11. Which of the following word best fits in blank (A)?

1. across
2. down
3. within
4. through
5. spate

Q12. Which of the following word best fits in blank (B)?

1. between
2. with
3. among
4. however
5. despite

Q13. Which of the following word best fits in blank (C)?

1. Until
2. For
3. While
4. Because
5. Again

Q14. Which of the following word best fits in blank (D)?

1. last
2. unless
3. under
4. beyond
5. yet

Q15. Which of the following word best fits in blank (E)?

1. too
2. among
3. out
4. beside
5. and

Q16. Which of the following word best fits in blank (F)?

1. on
2. for
3. by
4. in
5. to

Directions (17-25): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

In our fast-paced world, maintaining a clean and organized space can have a profound impact on our mental well-being. Decluttering and cleaning not only enhance the appearance of our surroundings but also help us feel more at peace, reducing stress and anxiety. A clutter-free environment fosters clarity, productivity, and a sense of control over our lives. However, the process of decluttering can sometimes feel daunting, especially when we are stuck in a rut, unsure of where to begin.

One of the biggest misconceptions about decluttering is that it must be completed in a single day. In reality, it is far more effective to tackle it gradually. Setting aside just a few minutes each day to remove unnecessary items and organize our belongings can create a lasting habit that prevents clutter from accumulating again. Over time, this small effort results in a cleaner, more refreshing space that boosts our mood and enhances our daily routine.

The impacts of decluttering go beyond just having a tidy home. A well-organized space can improve focus, increase efficiency, and even enhance sleep quality. When our surroundings are chaotic, our minds tend to mirror that disorder, making it harder to concentrate or relax. Decluttering eliminates distractions and creates an environment that promotes calmness and positivity. Additionally, a clean space fosters a sense of accomplishment, reinforcing motivation in other areas of life.

That being said, decluttering is not always easy. Many of us accumulate sentimental items or struggle with decision-making, making it difficult to part with things we no longer need. At times, we may find ourselves vying between keeping something "just in case" and letting it go for the sake of space and simplicity. In such moments, help from a friend, family member, or even a professional organizer can make the process more manageable and enjoyable.

Ultimately, decluttering is not just about tidying up—it is a form of self-care. By making it a regular habit, we can create a stress-free environment that allows us to focus on what truly matters in life.

Q17. Identify the correct statement based on the passage.

1. Decluttering is a form of self-care that helps in creating a stress-free environment.
2. People struggling with decision-making may find decluttering particularly challenging.
3. Hiring a professional organizer is the only reliable way to ensure a clutter-free space.
4. Both a and b
5. All ab, b, c

Q18. Which of the following is the antonym of "daunting" as used in the passage?

1. Encouraging
2. Overwhelming
3. Intimidating
4. Discouraging
5. Challenging

Q19. Which of the following is the synonym of "vying" as used in the passage?

1. Competing
2. Ignoring
3. Surrendering
4. Hesitating
5. Negotiating

Q20. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank:

1. demanding
2. seeking
3. ignoring
4. refusing
5. avoiding

Q21. What does the idiom "stuck in a rut" mean as used in the passage?

1. Feeling trapped in a repetitive and unchanging routine.
2. Being physically stuck in a messy or cluttered place.
3. Enjoying an adventurous and exciting lifestyle.
4. Making sudden and unpredictable changes in life.
5. Becoming more successful by following strict discipline.

Q22. What are some benefits of decluttering and cleaning, according to the passage?

1. It helps maintain a good mood by fostering a stress-free environment.
2. It enhances sleep quality by reducing mental and physical clutter.
3. It suppresses ambition by shifting focus away from long-term goals.
4. Both (a) and (b)
5. All (a), (b), and (c)

Q23. Identify the incorrect statement based on the passage.

1. Decluttering enhances sleep quality by creating a more peaceful space.
2. A cluttered environment can negatively affect focus and mental clarity.
3. Decluttering is a one-time process that eliminates the need for future organization.
4. Both a and b
5. All ab, b, c

Q24. Why is a gradual approach to decluttering considered more effective than completing it in a single day?

1. It helps individuals avoid making impulsive decisions when discarding items.
2. It ensures that people will never accumulate clutter in the future.
3. It minimizes the risk of feeling physically exhausted from excessive cleaning.
4. It allows decluttering to become a lasting habit, preventing future mess.
5. It eliminates the need for external assistance from friends or professional organizers.

Q25. What role does a clean and organized space play in enhancing productivity, according to the passage?

1. It eliminates the need for any further cleaning.
2. It creates distractions that stimulate creativity.
3. It fosters clarity and a sense of control, which improves productivity.
4. It primarily focuses on physical health rather than mental well-being.
5. It encourages a more chaotic and spontaneous lifestyle.

Directions (26-30): The following question contains a sentence which has been divided into four parts which might not be in their correct order of narrative. The sentence is then followed by five options, one of which gives the sequence of the rearranged parts to make the sentence meaningful. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct sequence, then mark option " No rearrangement required " as the answer.

Q26.

• 1. announced the final
  2. verdict after reviewing
  3. all evidence
  4. the judge
     1. BDCA
     2. BADC
     3. DABC
     4. DCBA
     5. No rearrangement required

Q27.

• • • 1. fashion collection at the
      2. prestigious fashion week
      3. the talented designer proudly
      4. showcased a stunning new
         1. ABDC
         2. CDAB
         3. ADCB
         4. DBCA
         5. No rearrangement required

Q28.

the cheerful toddler

building blocks

giggled joyfully while

playing with colorful

ACDB

ACBD

BACD

BADC

No rearrangement required

Q29.

upcoming critical mission

prepare for the

trained rigorously to

the brave soldiers

BDCA

DABC

BACD

DCBA

No rearrangement required

Q30.

(A) through complex machine

(B) learning algorithms

(C) the advanced robot quickly

(D) learned new tasks

(a) DACB

(b) BDAC

(c) CDAB

(d) ADBC

(e) No rearrangement required

Directions (31-35): Read the following bar graph carefully and answer the questions given below. The bar graph shows the total number of people who take flights for Pune and Delhi from five different airlines.

Q31. Find the ratio of the total number of people who take flight for Pune from D to total number of people who take flight for Delhi from A.

1. 15:11
2. 7:15
3. 9:11
4. 7:9
5. 9:13

Q32. The total number of people who take flight for Delhi from C is what percentage more or less than the total number of people who take flight for Pune from D?

1. 83.33%
2. 66.67%
3. 50%
4. 75%
5. 100%

Q33. The total number of people who take flight for Pune from A and B together is how many more or less than the total number of people who take flight for Delhi from C and E together.

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 25
5. 20

Q34. Find the average of the total number of people who take flight for Pune and Delhi from B.

1. 240
2. 180
3. 220
4. 190
5. 150

Q35. The total number of people who take flight for Pune from A is what percentage of the total number of people who take flight for Delhi from E?

1. 125%
2. 166.67%
3. 133.33%
4. 175%
5. None of these

Directions (36-40): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In class 8th : The total number of students in the class is 60, and 40% of boys are in the class.

In class 9th : The ratio of the boys in the class to girls in 8th class is 7:4, respectively. The total students in the class are 40% more than those in 8th class.

In class 10th : The total girls in the class is 14 2/7% more than that of in 9th class, and the total boys in the class is 16.67% less than that of in 8th class.

Q36. Find the difference between the total boys in class 8th and the total girls in class 9th.

1. 3
2. 7
3. 8
4. 4
5. 5

Q37. Find the ratio of the total students in class 10th to the total boys in classes 8th and 9th together.

1. 44 : 79
2. 43 : 87
3. 45 : 83
4. 42 : 89
5. None of these

Q38. Total girls in class 9th are what percentage of the total boys in class 10th?

1. 101%
2. 103.33%
3. 110%
4. 105%
5. 108%

Q39. Find the average boys in class 8th and the girls in class 10th.

1. 24
2. 12
3. 28
4. 16
5. 20

Q40. The total boys in class 11th is 5 more than the average girls in class 8th and 10th. If the total students in class 11th is 25% more than that of class 9th, then find the total girls in class 11th.

1. 100
2. 70
3. 80
4. 90
5. 120

Q41. A and B can complete a work in 15 days, B and C together can complete the work in 20 days, while C and A can complete the whole work in 30 days. Find the number of days taken by A, B, and C together to complete the work.

1. 5
2. 8.33
3. 10
4. 12.5
5. 13.33

Q42. Anita started a business with an investment of Rs 5000. After six months, Banita joined with an investment of Rs 4000, and Anita increased her investment by Rs 1000. At the end of the year, total profit is Rs 39000, then find the profit share of Anita (in Rs).

1. 28600
2. 23400
3. 25600
4. 21400
5. 22500

Q43. Train A can cross a 200-meter-long platform in 15 seconds with a speed of 20 m/sec. If the speed and length of train B are 25 m/sec and 250 meters, respectively, then find the time (in seconds) taken by train B to cross train A while running in the same direction.

1. 80
2. 70
3. 50
4. 40
5. 90

Q44. The area of a triangle is 126 sq. cm, and the ratio of the height to the base of the triangle is 9:7, respectively. If the base of the triangle is equal to the diameter of a circle, then find the circumference of the circle (in cm).

1. 32
2. 60
3. 44
4. 22
5. 28

Q45. X number of people in town A, and 10% of the people from town A go abroad. If 25% of the remaining people in town A go to town B and the total people in town B is 9000, then the number of people in town A.

1. 20000
2. 25000
3. 40000
4. 44000
5. 36000

Directions (46-55): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question: Q46. 250÷5+18×12=?

1. 201
2. 190
3. 234
4. 240
5. 266

Q47. 282+16= ?% of 20

1. 1500
2. 2500
3. 4500
4. 4000
5. 3000

Q48.

1. 41
2. 43
3. 42
4. 45
5. 49

Q49.

1. 967
2. 987
3. 958
4. 978
5. 968

Q50.

1. 42
2. 40
3. 35
4. 43
5. 39

Q51. 1.8 × 4+22.5+124.5=?

1. 123.3
2. 144.5
3. 154.2
4. 189.8
5. 127.4

Q52. 240-120+349-109=?

1. 360
2. 240
3. 120
4. 180
5. 250

Q53. 24÷32×42=2?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 4
5. 1

Q54. 28% of 400+125% of 80=?3-4

1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6
5. 5

Q55. 19.2×4-0.4×3=?-1.5×4

1. 81.6
2. 87.4
3. 82.3
4. 84.5
5. 88.9

Directions (56-60): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

Q56. I. x2 – 16x + 63 = 0

II. y2 – 21y + 108 = 0

1. If x > y
2. If x ≥ y
3. If x < y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q57. I. x2 – 20x + 75 = 0

II. y2 + 13y – 68 = 0

1. If x > y
2. If x ≥ y
3. If x < y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q58. I. x2 – 27x – 124 = 0

II. y2 – 24y+ 95= 0

1. If x > y
2. If x ≥ y
3. If x < y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q59. I. x2 – 25x + 150 = 0

II. y2 – 31y + 210 = 0

1. If x > y
2. If x ≥ y
3. If x < y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q60. I. x2 – 16x + 39 = 0

II. y2 – 33y + 270= 0

1. If x > y
2. If x ≥ y
3. If x < y
4. If x ≤ y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

Q61. A shopkeeper marked an article 50% above its cost price and allowed two successive discounts of 10% and X%. If the shopkeeper earned 8% profit in the article, then find the value of X.

1. 20
2. 10
3. 15
4. 5
5. 12

Q62. A boat can cover 150 km downstream in 10 hours and 60 km upstream in 12 hours. If the speed of the boat and the current each increased by 5 km/hr, then find the time taken by the boat to cover 30 km upstream.

1. 8 hours
2. 5 hours
3. 2 hours
4. 3 hours
5. 6 hours

Q63. A mixture contains 85 liters of milk and water in the ratio of 10:7, respectively. If X liters of water are added to the mixture, then the ratio of milk to water becomes 10:9, respectively. Find X.

1. 20
2. 12
3. 5
4. 10
5. 25

Q64. The average age of A and B is 60 years, and the difference between the ages of A and B is 30 years (A > B). If the age of C is 4/5th that of B, then find the age of C (in years).

1. 36
2. 24
3. 15
4. 10
5. 40

Q65. The ratio of A to B is 8:11, respectively. If A increased by 40% and B decreased by 20%, then the new ratio of A to B is 14:11. Find the original value of A. (A and B are two positive integers).

1. 22
2. 12
3. 20
4. None of these
5. Can’t be determined

Directions (66-69): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language:

“Reach check class rain” is coded as “MN OZ HF ED” “Class rain vision best” is coded as “HF MN JK LO” “Reach store best vision” is coded as “LO JK OZ BO”

“Rain check school vision” is coded as “ED HF TM JK”

Q66. What is the code for the word pair "Vision best"?

1. BO ED
2. JK BO
3. JK LO
4. LO ED
5. Can’t be determined

Q67. Which word among the following is coded as "TM"?

1. Reach
2. Check
3. School
4. Rain
5. Either Rain or School

Q68. What is the code for the statement “Store Check Rain” in the given code language?

1. BO MN OZ
2. BO HF ED
3. MN HF ED
4. HF ED JK
5. HF BO LO

Q69. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

1. “School rain” is coded as "BO OZ”
2. “Reach class” is coded as "OZ MN”
3. “Best store” is coded as “LO BO"
4. Both (a) and (b)
5. Both (b) and (c)

Directions (70-72): In each question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q70. Statements: Only a few grapes is short. Some grapes are fruit

No fruit is pink.

Conclusions:

• 1. No grapes is pink.
  2. Some grapes is pink.
     1. If only conclusion I follows
     2. If only conclusion II follows
     3. If either conclusion I or II follows
     4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
     5. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q71. Statements: Only a few maths is easy Some easy is grow

All grow is rare

Conclusions:

• • • 1. All maths is rare
      2. Some easy is rare
         1. If only conclusion I follows
         2. If only conclusion II follows
         3. If either conclusion I or II follows
         4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
         5. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q72. Statements: Some white is green All green are paper

No paper is start

Conclusions:

Some white being start is a possibility

Some white is paper

If only conclusion I follows

If only conclusion II follows

If either conclusion I or II follows

If neither conclusion I nor II follows

If both conclusions I and II follow

Directions (73-75): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

Q73. Statements: H ≥ W > Q = I > X < B > V

Conclusions: I. X ≤ H

II. W > B

1. If only conclusion I is true
2. If only conclusion II is true
3. If either conclusion I or II is true
4. If both conclusions I and II are true
5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q74. Statements: A < D > U ≤ N; D < P ≤ L

Conclusions: I. U < L

II. P > N

1. If only conclusion I is true
2. If only conclusion II is true
3. If either conclusion I or II is true
4. If both conclusions I and II are true
5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q75. Statements: M < K = O ≥ P; K ≤ R > E

Conclusions: I. O < E

II. R ≥ P

1. If only conclusion I is true
2. If only conclusion II is true
3. If either conclusion I or II is true
4. If both conclusions I and II are true
5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q76. How many pairs of letters are in the word “RELAXING” in both forward and backward directions, each of which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabetical series?

1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. One
5. More than four

Q77. In the word “ASTOUNED’’ vowels are changed with their immediate next letter and consonant are changed with their immediately preceding letter (as per alphabetical series), then all the letters are arranged in English Alphabet order then which letter is third from the right end?

1. S
2. R
3. P
4. V
5. F

Directions (78-80): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Point A is 10m west of point B. Point B is 7m south of the point C. Point D is 6m west of point C. Point E is 7m south of point D. Point F is 5m east of point B. Point G is 3m north of point F

Q78. In which direction point G with respect to point B?

1. South-east
2. North-east
3. North-west
4. South-west
5. North

Q79. If point H is 4m west of point D then what is the shortest distance between point A and point H?

1. 6m
2. 8m
3. 7m
4. 10m
5. Can’t be determined

Q80. What is the shortest distance between point B and point G?

1. 34m
2. 32m
3. √35m
4. √34m
5. None of these

Directions (81-84): Study the following number series carefully and the questions given below: 5 7 3 4 5 4 6 2 1 7 8 9 2 4 6 8 4 3 8 9 3 6

Q81. How many even numbers is/are immediately followed by an odd number?

1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. One
5. More than four

Q82. If we remove all the digits greater than six than which element is 7th from the right end?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 3
5. None of these

Q83. What is the sum of the odd numbers which are placed between the numbers which are fourth from both the ends in the series?

1. 24
2. 25
3. 23
4. 22
5. 26

Q84. Which of the following element is 4th to the left of 9th element from the right end?

1. 1
2. 9
3. 2
4. 7
5. 8

Directions (85-87): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons L, M, N, O, P and Q are of different weights, but not necessarily in the same order.

N is lighter than O. P is heavier than M. O is not heavier than P. L is lighter than O. The weight of the third heaviest person is 65Kg. M is lighter than O. M is heavier than N and L. P is lighter than Q.

Note: Weight of all the persons is a whole number.

Q85. Who among the following is the second lightest person?

1. M
2. O
3. N
4. L
5. Can’t be determined

Q86. What will be the possible weight of Q?

1. 66 kg
2. 64 kg
3. 78 kg
4. 60kg
5. 61 kg

Q87. How many persons are lighter than P?

1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. One
5. Can’t be determined

Directions (88-92): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W sit around a square-shaped table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the table and face inside while the remaining four sit in the middle of the four sides and face outside, but not necessarily in the same order.

R sits at one of the corners. Two persons sit between R and Q. V sits immediately to the left of Q. T sits second to the right of P. T and R are not immediate neighbours. Three persons sit between S and W. Both S and W are not the immediate neighbours of U. W and T are not immediate neighbours.

Q88. Who among the following sits fifth to the right of U?

1. V
2. W
3. T
4. S
5. P

Q89. What is the position of W with respect to P?

1. Third to the left
2. Third to the right
3. Fourth to the right
4. Fifth to the left
5. Second to the right

Q90. Which among the following statements is/are true?

1. Q sits second to the right of T.
2. V and W are not immediate neighbours.
3. P sits immediate left of R.
4. U sits immediate left of P.
5. Two persons sit between V and R.

Q91. How many persons sit between R and S when counted from the right of S?

1. One
2. Two
3. Five
4. Three
5. Four

Q92. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one who doesn’t belong to the group.

1. V
2. S
3. P
4. R
5. T

Directions (93-97): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven persons placed seven boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G –in a stack, but not necessarily in the same order.

Three boxes were placed between Box C and Box E. Two Boxes were placed between Box A and Box E. Box B is placed immediately below Box E. Box G is placed immediately above Box A. The number of boxes placed above Box F is same as the number of boxes placed below Box D. Box F is not placed at the bottom-most position.

Q93. Which among the following boxes is placed five boxes below Box E?

1. Box C
2. Box D
3. Box A
4. Box F
5. None of these

Q94. What is the position of Box A from the bottom?

1. Fourth
2. Fifth
3. Second
4. First
5. Third

Q95. How many boxes are placed between Box C and Box F?

1. Three
2. Four
3. One
4. Two
5. None of these

Q96. The number of boxes placed above Box B is the same number of boxes placed below _.

1. Box G
2. Box C
3. Box E
4. Box A
5. Box D

Q97. If Box E is related to Box G and in the same way Box F is related to Box B then which among the following box is related to Box D?

1. Box A
2. Box G
3. Box C
4. Box B
5. Box E

Directions (98-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. Four persons sit between S and T.

P sits second to the left of T. P sits fourth from one of the extreme ends of the row. Five persons sit between P and V. P sits to the left of V. R sits third to the right of V. R sits third from one of the extreme ends of the row. The number of persons sit to the right of R is same as the number of persons sit to the left of Q. M sits second to the left of Q.

Q98. What is the position of M with respect to V?

1. Ninth to the right
2. Eighth to the left
3. Ninth to the left
4. Eighth to the right
5. Tenth to the left.

Q99. Who sits exactly between Q and S?

1. S
2. The one who immediate right of T.
3. P
4. T
5. None of these

Q100. What is the total number of persons sitting in the row?

1. 13
2. 14
3. 16
4. 15
5. 11

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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