SBI Clerk Prelims 2023 – Question Paper

Directions (1-8): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

Brown’s theory of positive thinking, while captivating in its simplicity, fails to address the sheer complexities and inherent uncertainties of life. Advocating for a constant positive outlook, this theory overlooks the intricate interplay of external factors and human emotions that shape our existence.

Central to this theory is the belief that positivity can significantly life outcomes. However, this perspective underestimates the strain of uncontrollable elements such as socio-economic backgrounds, health issues, and random life events. These factors often have a profound impact on our lives, regardless of our mindset. By downplaying these aspects, Brown’s theory risks oversimplifying the diverse and often unpredictable nature of human experiences.

Furthermore, the theory’s emphasis on perpetual positivity neglects the importance of experiencing a range of emotions. Emotions like sadness, anger, and frustration are not only natural but necessary for a holistic emotional experience. The insistence on positivity can lead to the suppression of these emotions, creating psychological strain and potentially exacerbating mental health issues. This is contrary to the theory’s goal of fostering wellbeing.

Additionally, Brown’s theory does not fully recognize the concept of resilience, which is crucial in navigating life’s challenges. Resilience is about acknowledging difficulties, not just maintaining a positive facade. It involves understanding the realities of one’s situation, accepting the presence of obstacles, and developing strategies to adapt and overcome them. This approach is far more practical and sustainable than mere positive thinking.

In conclusion, while maintaining a positive outlook is beneficial, it is insufficient when confronted with life’s complexities. A more nuanced approach, which acknowledges the full spectrum of human emotions and life’s unpredictability, is essential. Positive thinking, without the accompaniment of realism and an acceptance of life’s uncertainties, can lead to disillusionment. Integrating positivity with a realistic and adaptable mindset is, therefore, a more effective strategy for dealing with life’s inherent uncertainties.

Q1. According to the passage, what is a fundamental flaw in Brown’s theory of positive thinking?

1. The theory inadvertently promotes a mindset that encourages negative thinking.
2. Brown’s theory excessively emphasizes the importance of emotional well-being.
3. This theory significantly underestimates the unpredictability and complexities of life.
4. It advocates for a perspective that unduly supports socio- economic development.
5. The focus of Brown’s theory is primarily on addressing health issues.

Q2. What does the passage imply is a more sustainable approach than mere positive thinking?

1. Formulating and implementing strategies to adapt to and overcome life’s challenges.
2. Solely concentrating on achieving a state of happiness in all circumstances.
3. Adopting an approach that involves completely ignoring life’s inherent difficulties.
4. Consistently maintaining a positive facade irrespective of the underlying realities.
5. Depending on the suppression of emotions to maintain a semblance of positivity.

Q3. How does the passage address the role of external factors in Brown’s theory of positive thinking?

1. It commends the theory for its comprehensive inclusion of external factors.
2. The passage criticizes the theory for its disregard of life’s external variables.
3. It asserts that external factors are overemphasized in Brown’s theory.
4. According to the passage, external factors are irrelevant in the context of the theory.
5. The theory is praised for perfectly balancing internal and external influences.

Q4. Identify the CORRECT statement about Brown’s theory of positive thinking, as discussed in the passage.

1. Brown’s theory accurately predicts life outcomes based on positivity.
2. The theory promotes a balanced approach to experiencing all emotions.
3. It emphasizes the importance of resilience in the face of adversity.
4. The theory overlooks the necessity of experiencing a range of emotions.
5. Brown’s theory fully accounts for the impact of external factors on life.

Q5. What does the passage imply about the psychological impact of adhering to Brown’s theory?

1. It suggests that the theory is a panacea for all psychological issues.
2. The passage implies that strict adherence can lead to psychological distress.
3. It claims that the theory guarantees psychological stability and happiness.
4. According to the passage, the theory has no significant psychological implications.
5. The theory is lauded for its positive psychological impact on all individuals.

Q6. Choose the word that is a synonym of ‘sheer’ as used in the passage.

1. absolute
2. partial
3. slight
4. limited
5. gradual

Q7. Choose the most suitable word to fill in the given blank.

1. magnitude
2. essence
3. scope
4. influence
5. dimension

Q8. Choose the word that is an antonym of ‘strain’ as used in the passage.

1. relief
2. tension
3. pressure
4. stress
5. burden

Directions (9-13): Each of the given questions contain a sentence with one word being omitted. Choose from the following options the word that can be most appropriately used to complete the sentence grammatically and contextually.

Q9. The melody played by the street musician had an

_ quality that drew a crowd of mesmerized listeners.

1. revolting
2. enchanting
3. haunting
4. stinging
5. repelling

Q10. The wise elder guided the young apprentice through a

_______________ journey, unlocking the secrets of the unseen realms.

1. infernal
2. evident
3. mystical
4. cryptic
5. existential

Q11. The ______________ ease with which she handled the challenging task showcased her expertise in the field.

1. apparent
2. repellent
3. sentient
4. fragrant
5. indistinct

Q12. The scientist conducted experiments in an _____________ laboratory to ensure controlled conditions for accurate results.

1. scattered
2. thrilled
3. excited
4. flustered
5. isolated

Q13. Despite the bustling city outside, the library maintained a ______________ environment, perfect for quiet reading and contemplation.

1. median
2. climax
3. extreme
4. serene
5. antique

Directions (14-18): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

Q14. Italian cuisine, renowned worldwide, (14) a

rich tapestry of flavours, and one iconic dish that ____________

(15) this culinary excellence is the classic spaghetti Bolognese. Originating from the city of Bologna, this savoury masterpiece features al dente pasta _____________ (16) in a

luscious, slow-cooked ragu` sauce. The sauce, a harmonious

blend of tomatoes, ground meat, onions, and aromatic herbs,

_________________ (17) a symphony of taste that tingles the palate. Garnished with freshly grated Parmesan cheese, the dish captures the essence of Italy’s culinary heritage. Served with a side of crusty bread and a glass of red wine, it

_ (18) a gastronomic experience that transcends

borders.

1. boasts
2. rumbles
3. produce
4. sprints
5. frights

Q15. Italian cuisine, renowned worldwide, (14) a

rich tapestry of flavours, and one iconic dish that ____________

(15) this culinary excellence is the classic spaghetti Bolognese. Originating from the city of Bologna, this savoury masterpiece features al dente pasta _____________ (16) in a luscious, slow-cooked ragu` sauce. The sauce, a harmonious blend of tomatoes, ground meat, onions, and aromatic herbs,

_________________ (17) a symphony of taste that tingles the palate. Garnished with freshly grated Parmesan cheese, the dish captures the essence of Italy’s culinary heritage. Served with a side of crusty bread and a glass of red wine, it

_ (18) a gastronomic experience that transcends

borders.

1. ruptures
2. breaks
3. embodies
4. sputters
5. fades

Q16. Italian cuisine, renowned worldwide, (14) a

rich tapestry of flavours, and one iconic dish that ____________

(15) this culinary excellence is the classic spaghetti Bolognese. Originating from the city of Bologna, this savoury masterpiece features al dente pasta _____________ (16) in a luscious, slow-cooked ragu` sauce. The sauce, a harmonious blend of tomatoes, ground meat, onions, and aromatic herbs,

_________________ (17) a symphony of taste that tingles the palate. Garnished with freshly grated Parmesan cheese, the dish captures the essence of Italy’s culinary heritage. Served with a side of crusty bread and a glass of red wine, it

_ (18) a gastronomic experience that transcends

borders.

1. bared
2. stripped
3. exposed
4. enveloped
5. whispered

Q17. Italian cuisine, renowned worldwide, (14) a

rich tapestry of flavours, and one iconic dish that ____________

(15) this culinary excellence is the classic spaghetti Bolognese. Originating from the city of Bologna, this savoury

masterpiece features al dente pasta _____________ (16) in a luscious, slow-cooked ragu` sauce. The sauce, a harmonious blend of tomatoes, ground meat, onions, and aromatic herbs,

_________________ (17) a symphony of taste that tingles the palate. Garnished with freshly grated Parmesan cheese, the dish captures the essence of Italy’s culinary heritage. Served with a side of crusty bread and a glass of red wine, it

_ (18) a gastronomic experience that transcends

borders.

1. destroys
2. limits
3. dampens
4. represses
5. creates

Q18. Italian cuisine, renowned worldwide, (14) a

rich tapestry of flavours, and one iconic dish that ____________

(15) this culinary excellence is the classic spaghetti Bolognese. Originating from the city of Bologna, this savoury masterpiece features al dente pasta _____________ (16) in a luscious, slow-cooked ragu` sauce. The sauce, a harmonious blend of tomatoes, ground meat, onions, and aromatic herbs,

_________________ (17) a symphony of taste that tingles the palate. Garnished with freshly grated Parmesan cheese, the dish captures the essence of Italy’s culinary heritage. Served with a side of crusty bread and a glass of red wine, it

_ (18) a gastronomic experience that transcends

borders.

1. delivers
2. imperils
3. risks
4. conserves
5. diminishes

Directions (19-22): In each of the questions given below a sentence is divided into four parts. These parts may or may not be in their correct position. Following each question four sequences are provided. Select the sequence of the parts which will arrange the given sentence in a contextual meaningful way. If the parts are correct at their current position, then choose ‘no rearrangement required’ as your answer.

Q19. (A) wind power is vital for a

1. sustainable energy future,
2. transitioning to solar and
3. reducing environmental impact
   1. DCAB
   2. CABD
   3. ACDB
   4. BDCA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q20. (A) our fast-paced world

1. mindfulness meditation offers
2. mental clarity and stress reduction,
3. promoting overall well-being in
   1. ACDB
   2. CBDA
   3. DCAB
   4. BCDA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q21. (A) and our place in it

1. new insights into the cosmos
2. captivate humanity, offering
3. recent space advancements
   1. BDCA
   2. ACDB
   3. CADB
   4. DCBA
   5. No rearrangement required

Q22. (A) social media shapes opinions

1. and connections but raises
2. misinformation, and mental health
3. concerns about privacy,
   1. DBAC
   2. CBDA
   3. ABDC
   4. BACD
   5. No rearrangement required

Directions (23-26): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q23. (A) Each of the students / (B) in the class / (C) were eager / (D) to participate in the competition.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q24. (A) The number of applicants / (B) for the job / (C) are increasing / (D) every year.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Q25. (A) Neither of the two candidates / (B) have submitted /

(C) their application forms / (D) before the deadline.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) No error

Q26. (A) Among the various challenges / (B) faced by the team, / (C) the lack of resources / (D) were the most significant.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Directions (27-30): In each of the following sentences, four words have been highlighted which may or may not be misspelt or inappropriate in their usage. Mark the erroneous word as the answer and if all the words are correct in their spellings and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

Q27. The adverse effects of the prolonged drought were

evident in the withering crops and the drying up of the river.

1. adverse
2. prolonged
3. evident
4. drying
5. All are correct

Q28. The infamous painting, admired by art enthusiasts worldwide, hung majestically at the centre of the gallery, drawing the gaze of every visitor.

1. infamous
2. enthusiasts
3. majestically
4. drawing
5. All are correct

Q29. Despite initial doubts, she decided to except the job offer, realizing it was a unique opportunity to advance her career.

1. except
2. realizing
3. unique
4. advance
5. All are correct

Q30. After weeks of diligent practice, her piano skills improved significantly, enabling her to master even the most challenging pieces easy.

1. practice
2. enabling
3. challenging
4. easy
5. All are correct

Q31. A man invested Rs 16000 at the rate of 12.5% p.a. for certain years and amount becomes Rs 32000. Find for how many years man invested?

1. 10
2. 12
3. 8
4. 6
5. 16

Q32. The average weight of the 10-person group is 50 kg. A person left the group and the average weight of the group decreased by one kg. If one new person joins the group of remaining people, then the average weight of the group becomes 52 kg. Find the difference between the weight of the person who left the group and the person who joined the group.

1. 30 kg
2. 16 kg
3. 18 kg
4. 24 kg
5. 20 kg

Q33. The ratio of present age of A and B is 1 : 3 respectively and the ratio of present age of A and C is 2 : 3. If the difference between present age of A and C is two years, then find the sum of age of A, B and C fourteen years hence.

1. 54 years
2. 20 years
3. 64 years
4. 48 years
5. 60 years

Q34. The ratio of length to perimeter of a rectangle is 1 :

3. Find the ratio of breath to perimeter of the rectangle.

1. 1 : 8
2. 1 : 2
3. 1 : 4
4. 1 : 6
5. 2 : 5

Q35. The speed of a boat in still water is 36 km/hr and the speed of stream is 4 km/hr. If the boat takes 24 minutes more time to cover ‘x’ km distance in upstream as compared to downstream. Find the value of ‘2x’.

1. 64
2. 32
3. 320
4. 160
5. 128

Q36. A man covers two distances of ‘d’ km and ‘d+32’ km. If the difference between time taken by the man to cover these two distances is two hours, then find the speed of the man (in km/hr).

1. 16
2. 32
3. 18
4. 8
5. 24

Q37. P invested Rs 15000 in a business and after seven months, Q joined him with a certain amount. At the end of a year, the ratio of profit share P to that of Q is 3 : 1. Find the amount invested by Q (in Rs.).

1. 18000
2. 10000
3. 12000
4. 9000
5. 20000

Q38. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, whereas B alone took 6 days more than the time taken by A and B together. Find the time taken by A alone to complete the work.

1. 22 days
2. 30 days
3. 28 days
4. 36 days
5. 25 days

Q39. 48 liters mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively. 10 liters mixture is taken out and 20 liters water is added in remaining mixture. Find the difference between milk and water in final mixture (in liter).

1. 0
2. 0.5
3. 2
4. 1.5
5. 1

Q40. The selling price of an article is 60% of its marked price and shopkeeper gets a profit of 20%. If shopkeeper sells the article at its marked price, then the difference between cost price and marked price of article is Rs. 140. Find the cost price of the article.

1. 490 Rs
2. 280 Rs
3. 70 Rs
4. 140 Rs
5. 210 Rs

Directions (41-45): There is one wrong term in each series given below. Find that wrong term.

Q41. 2, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256

1. 16
2. 8
3. 2
4. 256
5. 32

Q42. 4320, 4337, 4463, 4500, 4844, 4910, 5639

1. 4320
2. 4910
3. 5639
4. 4844
5. 4463

Q43. 3, 4, 8, 24, 88, 364, 1368

1. 1368
2. 24
3. 88
4. 8
5. 364

Q44. 758, 777, 818, 855, 896, 939, 986

1. 896
2. 758
3. 986
4. 818
5. 777

Q45. 1736, 1751, 1776, 1821, 1896, 2012, 2176

1. 1751
2. 1821
3. 1896
4. 2012
5. 1736

Directions (46-50): Read the table carefully and answer the following questions:

The table given below shows the yearly investment done by Indumati and Chutki in three different schemes (LIC, ESIC and NPS).

Q46. Find the ratio of the sum of yearly investment of Indumati in LIC and NPS to the sum of the yearly investment of Chutki in ESIC and NPS.

1. 1:5
2. 2:3
3. 5:1
4. 4: 3
5. 2: 5

Q47. Yearly investment of Gyan in NPS is 30% more than the average yearly investment of Chutki in LIC and ESIC. Find the yearly investment of Indumati in ESIC is what percentage of the yearly investment of Gyan in NPS.

1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 60%
4. 40%
5. 25%

Q48. Yearly investment of Bholu in ESIC is more than the yearly investment of Chutki in LIC. If Bholu invested equal amount in installment, then find the installment of each month for Bholu in ESIC.

1. Rs. 5500
2. Rs. 5100
3. Rs. 5200
4. Rs. 5000
5. Rs. 5800

Q49. Yearly investment of Indumati in NPS is what percentage more/less than the yearly investment of Chutki in LIC.

1. 
2. 
3. 60%
4. 40%
5. 25%

Q50. Scheme LIC gives the interest of 12% yearly and Scheme ESIC gives a interest of 15% yearly. Find the interest received by Indumati after a year.

1. Rs. 4050
2. Rs. 8500
3. Rs. 4885
4. Rs. 6255
5. Rs. 5805

Directions (51-65): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following question.

Q51.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

Q52.

1. 250
2. 150
3. 200
4. 225
5. 175

Q53.

1. 5.5
2. 6.5
3. 4.5
4. 5
5. 7.5

Q54.

1. 900
2. 950
3. 850
4. 800
5. 750

Q55.

1. 40
2. 20
3. 30
4. 50
5. 60

Q56.

1. 5
2. 8
3. 10
4. -5
5. Both (a) and (d)

Q57.

1. 3
2. 2
3. 5
4. 1
5. 0

Q58.

1. 4
2. 11
3. 6
4. 15
5. 7

Q59. √75 × √300 =?

1. 100√3
2. 120
3. 75√3
4. 140
5. 150

Q60.

1. 34
2. 6
3. 28
4. 12
5. 20

Q61.

1. 140
2. 300
3. 340
4. 200
5. 240

Q62.

1. 12
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
5. 10

Q63.

1. 60
2. 25
3. 62
4. 50
5. 30

Q64.

1. 6
2. 9
3. 5
4. 7
5. 3

Q65.

1. 441
2. 324
3. 144
4. 529
5. 400

Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

There are eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.

Box D is exactly above box A. Three boxes are placed between box A and box E. There are as many boxes placed above box B as below box C. Box C is placed just above box E and below box

D. Box B is placed at even numbered place (when counted from top to bottom) and three places above box H. Box G is placed adjacent to box C.

Q66. Which box is placed at the topmost position?

1. A
2. F
3. C
4. D
5. E

Q67. If Box F is at the bottommost position, which box is just above it?

1. E
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. G

Q68. The numbers of boxes placed above the box G is same as the numbers of boxes placed below box ____.

1. Box A
2. Box D
3. Box F
4. Box H
5. None of these

Q69. If all the boxes are arranged in alphabetical order from topmost to bottommost then how many boxes remain unchanged?

1. One
2. Three
3. More than four
4. None
5. Two

Q70. How many boxes are placed between box G and box F?

1. One
2. Three
3. More than four
4. None
5. Four

Directions (71-75): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language:

"flower is blooming" is coded as "gt sj kz" "blooming during spring" is coded as "kz hv qa"

"spring winter season flower" is coded as "qa lx gt px" “during winter rain fall” is coded as “qv px lt hv”

Q71. What is the code for "flower" in the given code language?

1. sj
2. gt
3. kz
4. hv
5. None of these

Q72. What is the code for "blooming spring" in the given code language?

1. gt qa
2. kz qa
3. sj hv
4. hv kz
5. None of these

Q73. In the given code language, what does "lx" stand for?

1. flower
2. spring
3. during
4. season
5. None of these

Q74. What is the code for "season is during" in the given code language?

1. lx sj hv
2. qa sj kz
3. lx sj qa
4. sj lx qv
5. None of these

Q75. What may be the code for "rain" in the given code language?

1. px
2. hv
3. lx
4. lt
5. sj

Directions (76-80): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1; P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing north. G, H, I, J, and K are sitting in row-2 and facing south direction.

S sits 3rd to the left of Q. One person sits between S and the one who faces H. I sits 2nd to the right of J. Q does not face J. T faces the one who sits 2nd to the right of K. P sits left of R.

Q76. Who is sitting at one end of Row 2?

1. G
2. H
3. I
4. J
5. None of these

Q77. Who sits 2nd to the right of P?

1. S
2. T
3. Q
4. Either S or T
5. Either T or Q

Q78. Who is sitting exactly opposite to Q?

1. G
2. H
3. I
4. K
5. None of these

Q79. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?

1. I
2. P
3. K
4. Q
5. G

Q80. How many persons are sitting between R and S?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Either one or two

Q81. In the number ‘924831675’, how many pairs of the digits have the same number between them (both forward and backward direction) as in the number series?

1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. More than four

Directions (82-83): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q82. Statements:

All flower are plant.

Only a few plant are tree. No tree is a river.

Conclusions:

• 1. Some flower are tree.
  2. Some plant are not tree.
     1. If only conclusion I follows
     2. If only conclusion II follows
     3. If either conclusion I or II follows
     4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
     5. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q83. Statements:

Only a few pen are pencil. Only a few pencil are eraser. No eraser is a book.

Conclusions:

• • • 1. Some pencil is book.
      2. No book is a pencil.
         1. If only conclusion I follows
         2. If only conclusion II follows
         3. If either conclusion I or II follows
         4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
         5. If both conclusions I and II follow

Directions (84-88): Read the given alphanumeric-symbol series carefully and answer the related questions:

O 4 # W U 2 @ 7 R 3 I $ G % J H 9 B & 5 8 + V N M Ω 6 ¥ 1

Q84. Which of the following element is 11th from the right end?

1. B
2. 5
3. &
4. 9
5. J

Q85. How many numbers are just followed by a letter?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Five
4. One
5. Three

Q86. How many symbols are just preceded by a number?

1. Five
2. Four
3. Three
4. One
5. Two

Q87. If all the numbers are removed from the series, then which of the following element will be 4th to the right of 5th letter from left end?

1. G
2. J
3. %
4. H
5. B

Q88. Which of the following element is exactly in the middle of ‘4’ and ‘5’?

1. I
2. $
3. G
4. 3
5. %

Directions (89-91): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:

There are eight persons in a three-generation family. J is father of B and grandfather of H. G is the father-in-law of H’s parent. K is sister-in-law of G’s child. K has a brother who has no child. F is son-in-law of C’s father. B is sister of C. P is child of F’s sister-in-law.

Q89. What is the relation of P with respect to H?

1. Brother
2. Sister
3. Niece
4. Nephew
5. Cannot be determined

Q90. Who among the following is uncle of P?

1. J
2. G
3. K
4. C
5. None of the above

Q91. What is the relation of F with respect to C?

1. Cousin
2. Brother
3. Brother-in-law
4. Uncle
5. Cannot be determined

Directions (92-96): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G go to home (not in the same order as given) on different days of a week starting from Monday to Sunday.

A goes on Tuesday. Three persons go between A and C. G and C go adjacent to each other. Number of persons go before D is same as after G. B goes two days after F.

Q92. Who among the following goes on Friday?

1. F
2. G
3. C
4. B
5. D

Q93. E goes on which of the following days?

1. Friday
2. Wednesday
3. Sunday
4. Monday
5. Thursday

Q94. How many persons go between D and F?

1. None
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. Four

Q95. Which of the following combination is correct?

1. Wednesday – D
2. Saturday – C
3. Sunday – E
4. Friday – G
5. Monday – F

Q96. Who among the following goes on Wednesday?

1. E
2. G
3. F
4. D
5. B

Q97. If we form a four-letter meaningful word from 1st, 7th, 8th and 11th letter from left end of the word ‘AGRICULTURE’ (using each letter only once), then what will be the 3rd letter from left end of that meaningful word? If no meaningful word is formed, then mark answer as P and if more than one meaningful word is formed, then mark answer as Q.

1. L
2. T
3. Q
4. P
5. A

Directions (98-100): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F attend different number of lectures one after the other but not in the same order as given. D attends more lectures than B but not the highest. Two persons attend the lectures between D and E. F attends more lectures than A. One person attends the lecture between C and

A. C does not attend more number of lecture than B. C does not attend the least lecture.

Q98. Who among the following attend 3rd highest number of lectures?

(a) B

(b) A

(c) D

(d) F

(e) C

Q99. Who among the following attends just less number of lectures than B?

1. E
2. A
3. C
4. F
5. Cannot be determined

Q100. Which of the following pair of persons attend highest and 2nd smallest number of lectures respectively?

1. E, A
2. E, C
3. F, B
4. F, A
5. F, E

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

Practice Banking Exam Topic wise Questions

Next, take these Banking Exam Free Mock Tests

Refer Banking Exam Previous Year Question Papers