IBPS PO Prelims 2024 Question Paper

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them face towards the centre, and some face away from the centre.

F sits third to the right of A. The immediate neighbours of A face the same direction but opposite as A. A faces the same direction as B but not towards the centre. One person sits between A and C. D sits 2nd to the left of C. E sits 2nd to the left of G and face in the same direction. F and D face opposite direction as E.

Q1. Who among the following sits second to the right of E?

1. A
2. D
3. C
4. F
5. G

Q2. Which among the following pair of persons faces the same direction?

1. G and C
2. A and E
3. E and D
4. C and F
5. None of these

Q3. How many persons sit between B and F (counting clockwise from F)?

1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Two
5. None

Q4. Four of the following five persons are alike in a certain way based on their seating arrangement. Find the odd one.

1. F
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A

Q5. Which among the following statements is/are true?

• 1. G faces towards the centre.
  2. Both F and A face away from the centre.
  3. Two persons sit between C and D when counted clockwise from D.
     1. Only I
     2. Only III
     3. Both I and II
     4. Both II and III
     5. All I, II, and III

Directions (6-8): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

M is spouse of O and parent of R. O is father-in-law of T who has two children. N is the only son of R who has no sibling. T is mother-in-law of P. V is married to P.

Q6. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner, who among the following is dissimilar to others?

1. O
2. R
3. P
4. N
5. V

Q7. Who among the following is grandmother of V?

1. T
2. M
3. R
4. O
5. N

Q8. What is the relation of P with respect to R?

1. Son-in-law
2. Son
3. Nephew
4. Daughter
5. None of the above

Q9. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the third, fourth, fifth and seventh letter from the left end of the word ‘EXACTITUDE’, then which of the following will be the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed. If more than one word is formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?

1. C
2. A
3. X
4. T
5. Z

Directions (10-14): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Seven persons was born on same date and same month but in different years – 1955, 1967, 1973 1980, 1987, 1991, 2003. Consider the base year 2024 to calculate the ages.

L’s age is multiple of 3. Three persons were born between L and Q. Number of persons born before Q is same as the number of persons born after P. Difference between the age of Q and K is 12 years. M is 7 years older to N. N is younger to O.

Q10. Who among the following was born in 1967?

1. N
2. P
3. M
4. O
5. K

Q11. What is age difference between M and Q?

1. 25 years
2. 24 years
3. 23 years
4. 30 years
5. 20 years

Q12. M was born in which year?

1. 1973
2. 1980
3. 1987
4. 1967
5. 1955

Q13. What is the total age of K and N?

1. 84 years
2. 65 years
3. 81 years
4. 58 years
5. 70 years

Q14. If P is related to L, N is related to Q, then M is related to ___.

1. K
2. O
3. L
4. None of these
5. N

Directions (15-19): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

In a certain code language

‘Play the same game.’ is coded as ‘us ud ut uk’ ‘Seen in the play.’ is coded as ‘uk ua ud um’

‘The jar is seen.’ is coded as ‘ud ua uh uw’

‘The same game played’ is coded as ‘ut ud ub us’

Q15. What is the code for ‘same’?

1. uh
2. ut
3. um
4. ub
5. ud

Q16. If the code of ‘Jar’ is ‘uh’, then the code of ‘is played’ will be?

1. ua ud
2. uw ut
3. ua us
4. uw ub
5. uw ut

Q17. What is the code of ‘play’?

1. ud
2. us
3. uk
4. ut
5. um

Q18. What will be the possible code for ‘game is played’?

1. uh ud ub
2. ut us ua
3. us uh ub
4. ut ub ud
5. uh uw uk

Q19. Which word is coded as ‘um’?

1. In
2. The
3. Play
4. Seen
5. None of the above

Directions (20-24): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Six persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F sit in row such that all of them face in the north direction. They all like different fruits i.e. Mango, Strawberry, Guava, Orange, Apple and Banana but not necessarily in the same order.

The one who likes Strawberry sits at the right end. B sits 3rd to the left of the one who likes Guava. A sits 2nd to the left of the one who likes Mango, and likes Banana. C sits 3rd to the right of E but not sit at any extreme ends. There are as many persons sit to the right of D is same as to the left of the one who likes Apple.

Q20. Who among the following likes Guava?

1. A
2. D
3. C
4. F
5. None of these

Q21. How many persons sit between C and the one who likes Orange?

1. Three
2. Two
3. One
4. None
5. None of these

Q22. Who among the following sits third to the left of the one who likes Guava?

1. The one who sits immediate left of E
2. F
3. The one who likes Orange
4. A
5. None of these

Q23. Which of the following statement is true?

1. C sits to the immediate left of the one who likes Apple.
2. The one who likes Mango sits 3rd from the extreme right end.
3. B likes Orange.
4. A sits third to the left of D.
5. None is true

Q24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

1. B- Banana
2. F-Orange
3. E-Guava
4. A-Apple
5. C-Mango

Q25. Find odd one out?

1. FBI
2. PLR
3. EAH
4. IEL
5. RNU

Directions (26-30): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:

Six boxes – A, B, C, D, E and F are placed one above another. These boxes are of different types – Jute, Steel, Iron, Wood, Leather, Brass. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.

Box D is placed three places above leather box. Same number of boxes are placed above box D and below steel box. Box B is placed just below box F and juts above wood box. Box A is placed two places below iron box. More than one box is placed below box C which is placed below brass box.

Q26. How many boxes are placed between brass box and box A?

1. None
2. Three
3. One
4. Two
5. Four

Q27. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Box E is bottommost box
2. Box B is leather box
3. Box D is placed above box F
4. Box A and B are adjacent to each other
5. Box C is brass box

Q28. Box F is of which type?

1. Iron
2. Jute
3. Brass
4. Steel
5. Leather

Q29. If box E is related to wood box, box A is related to leather box, then in similar manner, which box is related to jute box?

1. Box D
2. Box F
3. Box B
4. Box C
5. None of the above

Q30. As many boxes are placed above box D as below box ___.

1. Box C
2. Box B
3. Box E
4. Box A
5. Box F

Q31. In the word ‘ORGANIZE’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them (both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabet?

1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. More than four

Directions (32-34): Study the information carefully answer the questions given below.

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U in a family have different weights. The third heaviest person weight is 40kg. Q’s weight is in odd number and is lighter than S but heavier than R. The number of persons lighter than S is one more than P. T is heavier than R and U. T is 20kg more than P who is heavier than Q. The second lightest person is not Q.

Q32. What is the possible weight of S?

1. 39kg
2. 34kg
3. 53kg
4. 67kg
5. 62kg

Q33. If R’s weight is 15kg less than P and 5 kg more than U then what is the sum weight of R and U?

1. 38kg
2. 45kg
3. 50kg
4. 40kg
5. 35kg

Q34. The numbers of persons heavier than P is same as the numbers of persons lighter than _.

1. S
2. T
3. Q
4. P
5. None of these

Q35. If in the given word “CONVERSION”, if we replaced all odd position letter (from left) with its just next letter and replace all the even position letter (from left) with its just previous letter then find how many letters are repeated there in the new arrangement?

1. One
2. Two
3. Four
4. Three
5. None

Directions (36-43): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words are highlighted to answer some of the questions.

Emotional intelligence (EQ) is increasingly recognized as a key component of success in both personal and professional realms. While men and women may possess similar overall levels of EQ, research consistently shows that they tend to excel in different emotional competencies. Women often score higher in areas such as empathy, interpersonal relationships, and social responsibility, whereas men tend to perform better in assertiveness, stress tolerance, and self-regard (or confidence). These differences lay the foundation for the distinct emotional approaches each gender brings to the workplace, shaped by both biological factors and the powerful process of socialization.

Socialization plays a significant role in determining these gender-specific strengths. From an early age, boys and girls receive different messages about how they should behave. Boys are often to be competitive, confident, assertive, and decisive, and are taught that winning is of primary importance. Girls, on the other hand, are socialized to be nurturing, empathetic, and emotionally expressive. They learn to value relationships and cooperation over competition. These early experiences influence the development of specific emotional intelligence skills, with boys becoming more assertive and confident and girls excelling in empathy and interpersonal communication.

As boys and girls grow into adults, these learned behaviors are reinforced by societal norms and expectations. In the workplace, these socialized behaviors manifest in ways that can impact professional roles and leadership opportunities. Men’s strengths in assertiveness and self-regard often give them an advantage in competitive environments, helping them excel in leadership positions. Meanwhile, women’s strengths in empathy and interpersonal relationships make them highly effective in teamwork and collaborative settings, though these skills are sometimes undervalued in leadership hierarchies.

These gender-based differences in emotional intelligence may contribute to the leadership gender gap. Men’s natural tendencies toward assertiveness and confidence can help them rise in hierarchical structures, while women’s empathy and relational strengths are often better suited for team-oriented roles. Recognizing and valuing these differences can help organizations leverage the diverse emotional strengths of both genders, fostering a more balanced and inclusive leadership landscape.

Q36. According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) is/ are true?

• 1. Emotional intelligence (EQ) is primarily shaped by biological factors, with little influence from socialization.
  2. Women tend to excel in empathy, social responsibility, and interpersonal relationships according to research.
  3. Assertiveness and stress tolerance are often considered key emotional competencies where men perform better.
     1. Only (I) is true
     2. Only (II) is true
     3. Both (II) and (III) are true
     4. Only (III) is true
     5. All statements are true

Q37. Which of the following statements is incorrect based on the passage?

1. Men’s assertiveness and self-regard give them an advantage in hierarchical leadership positions.
2. Women’s relational strengths are particularly well-suited for competitive, high-pressure roles in leadership.
3. Boys are often encouraged to be decisive and assertive from an early age.
4. Socialization influences the development of emotional competencies for both genders.
5. Emotional intelligence skills learned in childhood are reinforced by societal norms as individuals grow older.

Q38. According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) is/ are true?

• 1. Women’s emotional intelligence strengths are undervalued in hierarchical structures, particularly in leadership positions.
  2. Men tend to perform better in teamwork and collaborative settings due to their confidence.
  3. Societal expectations reinforce the emotional competencies that boys and girls develop early in life.
     1. Only (I) is true
     2. Both (I) and (III) are true
     3. Both (II) and (III) are true
     4. Only (II) is true
     5. All statements are true

Q39. Which of the following words has the similar meaning as “lay” (as used in the passage)?

1. Establish
2. Cover
3. Remove
4. Complicate
5. Dismiss

Q40. Based on the passage, which of the following can be logically inferred about gender differences in emotional intelligence?

1. Women’s strengths in empathy and interpersonal relationships make them more suitable for leadership roles than men.
2. Men’s performance in assertiveness and confidence is exclusively the result of societal conditioning, with no biological factors involved.
3. Organizations that recognize and value both genders’ emotional strengths can create more balanced and effective leadership.
4. Women are less likely to succeed in competitive environments because they lack confidence and assertiveness.
5. Emotional intelligence competencies between men and women are so different that they cannot effectively collaborate in professional settings.

Q41. Which of the following can be inferred about the role of societal norms in shaping emotional intelligence, based on the passage?

1. Societal norms only affect women’s emotional intelligence, particularly in developing empathy and interpersonal skills.
2. Boys and girls are socialized in a way that equally promotes both assertiveness and empathy in both genders.
3. Emotional intelligence is fixed and cannot be influenced or altered once societal norms have shaped it during childhood.
4. Societal expectations reinforce gender-specific emotional skills, leading to men excelling in competitive environments and women in teamwork.
5. Societal norms have no influence on emotional competencies, which are purely biologically determined.

Q42. What is the antonym of “approach”?

1. Withdraw
2. Assist
3. Destroy
4. Engage
5. leverage

Q43. Choose the correct word to fill in the blank:

1. persuaded
2. discouraged
3. encouraged
4. influenced
5. restricted

Directions (44-45): In each of the following questions, a sentence with four highlighted words is provided. These highlighted words may be either misspelled or used inappropriately. Select the incorrect word as the answer, and if all the highlighted words are correct in spelling and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as answer.

Q44. The children’s favorite activities at the camp was hiking through the forest trails.

1. favorite
2. activities
3. trails
4. hiking
5. All are correct

Q45. She felt an overwhelming sense of joe as she watched the sunset, its vibrant colors painting the sky.

1. watched
2. vibrant
3. overwhelming
4. joe
5. All are correct

Q46. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.

• 1. The team has worked really hard and deserves all of the praise they are receiving.
  2. She was excited to start her new job, but her nervousness was affecting her confidence.
  3. Each of the students were required to submit their projects before the deadline.
     1. Only (I)
     2. Both (II) and (III)
     3. Only (III)
     4. Both (I) and (II)
     5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q47. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually incorrect.

• • • 1. The manager, along with her team, were discussing the upcoming project in great detail.
      2. If I would have known about the event earlier, I would have definitely attended it.
      3. The city has experienced a significant drop in crime rates, largely due to new safety measures implemented last year.
         1. Only (I)
         2. Both (II) and (III)
         3. Only (III)
         4. Both (I) and (II)
         5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Q48. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.

If you would have studied harder, you could have passed the exam.

Despite the rain, the outdoor event went on as planned, attracting a large crowd.

The company’s profits have been steadily increasing due to its new marketing strategy.

Only (I)

Both (II) and (III)

Only (III)

Both (I) and (II)

Directions (49-53): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

The government has therefore employed authorities to conduct fumigations, as the situation continues to escalate.

Despite efforts to contain the situation, the bed bugs have infested public transport, popular tourist destinations, and even airports.

Paris, a global tourist destination, has recently faced a troubling resurgence of bed bugs across various neighborhoods and popular attractions in the city.

This outbreak has raised concerns not only among residents but also tourists, many of whom worry that the pests could travel with them back to their countries.

Experts suggest that international travel and dense urban environments have facilitated the rapid spread of this infestation.

Furthermore, bed bugs have become a common sight in metros and airports, making control measures even more challenging.

Q49. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) A

(c) B

(d) E

(e) C

Q50. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) F

(c) E

(d) D

(e) C

Q51. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) E

(c) D

(d) A

(e) F

Q52. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B

(b) E

(c) D

(d) C

(e) A

Q53. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) B

(c) A

(d) D

(e) F

Q54. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.

1. The children was playing in the garden while their parents watched.
2. By the time we arrived, the concert had already started.
3. Neither of the candidates were prepared for the final interview.
   1. Only (I)
   2. Both (II) and (III)
   3. Only (III)
   4. Both (I) and (II)
   5. Only (II)

Q55. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually incorrect.

• • 1. The students who have completed the assignments on time will receive extra credit from their instructor.
    2. Despite of the heavy traffic, we managed to reach the airport on time for our flight.
    3. She has been working on the project since six months, but there is still a lot left to do.
       1. Only (I)
       2. Both (II) and (III)
       3. Only (III)
       4. Both (I) and (III)
       5. All (I), (II), and (III)

Directions (56-57): In each of the following questions, a sentence with four highlighted words is provided. These highlighted words may be either misspelled or used inappropriately. Select the incorrect word as the answer, and if all the highlighted words are correct in spelling and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as answer.

Q56. When the crown on the head of the newest king, all of the people at the coronation went wild with

priase.

1. priase
2. newest
3. crown
4. coronation
5. All are correct

Q57. Because we did nothing but sit in the hotel room, our vaccation

was vapid and uninteresting.

1. vaccation
2. vapid
3. hotel
4. uninteresting
5. All are correct

Directions (58-62): In each of the following sentences, a word is missing and replaced by a blank. Choose the best word from the given options that can fit into the sentence without altering the intended meaning.

Q58. She decided to donate a portion of her earnings to the local ______________ that supports underprivileged children.

1. atrocity
2. clarity
3. calamity
4. acidity
5. charity

Q59. The art gallery hosted an exhibition featuring works from some of the most artists

in the world.

1. ignorant
2. latent
3. removable
4. prestigious
5. religious

Q60. The book had a/an impact on her perspective, changing the way she viewed the

world.

1. profound
2. tripping
3. encroach
4. oversea
5. accurately

Q61. The sudden power outage threw the entire city into _________________, with traffic jams and confused crowds everywhere.

1. concur
2. chaos
3. growth
4. peculiar
5. nascent

Q62. Once the switch was flipped, the machine was and began operating smoothly.

1. weltered
2. invoked
3. activated
4. captivated
5. deactivated

Q63. In the following question, a phrasal verb is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which has used the given phrasal verb. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below which has correctly used the given phrasal verb without altering the meaning of the sentence.

Come up

• 1. The issue of parking spaces came up during the meeting, and we spent an hour discussing it.
  2. An interesting opportunity came up, so I decided to apply for the job.
  3. The sun will come up in the west tomorrow, according to the weather report.
     1. Both A & B
     2. Only C
     3. Both B & C
     4. Only A
     5. Both A & C

Q64. In the following question, a phrasal verb is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which has used the given phrasal verb. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below which has incorrectly used the given phrasal verb without altering the meaning of the sentence.

Get across

• • • 1. They got across the mountain by taking a shortcut through the forest.
      2. The presenter used charts and examples to get across the complex data in a clear manner.
      3. The speaker used visuals to get across his point effectively to the audience.
         1. Both A & B
         2. Only C
         3. Both B & C
         4. Only A
         5. Both A & C

Q65. In the following question, a phrasal verb is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which has used the given phrasal verb. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below which has correctly used the given phrasal verb without altering the meaning of the sentence.

Check out

Before you leave the hotel, don’t forget to check out at the reception desk.

I’m going to the library to check out some books for my research paper.

You should check out that new restaurant downtown; I’ve heard great things about it.

Only A

Both A & C

Both B & C

All A, B, C

Only B

Directions (66-70): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of bikes sold by two (X and Y) different companies in four (K, L, M, and N) different cities and the total number of cars sold by these two companies in these cities. The table also shows the total number of bikes sold by company Y in these cities.

Cities	Bikes sold by (X and Y)	Cars sold by (X and Y)	Bikes sold by Y
K	328	450	210
L	560	980	320
M	440	730	90
N	620	350	195

Q66. If total number of cars sold by Y in city K are two-fifth of the total number of bikes sold by Y in city K, then find the difference between the total number of cars sold by X in city K and bikes sold by X in city M.

1. 22
2. 16
3. 23
4. 15
5. 18

Q67. Total number of cars sold by X in city N is 20% less than the total number of bikes sold by X in city M. Find the ratio of the total number of cars sold by Y in city N to the total number of bikes sold by Y in city K.

1. 3:1
2. 2:1
3. 2:3
4. 1:4
5. 1:3

Q68. The ratio of the total number of cars sold by X to Y in city L is 3:4 respectively. Find the total number of cars sold by X in city L is how many more or less than the total number of bikes sold by Y in N.

1. 225
2. 210
3. 195
4. 145
5. 125

Q69. The total number of bikes sold by X in city M is what percentage more or less than the total number of cars sold by X and Y together in city N?

1. 2%
2. 0%
3. 5%
4. 10%
5. 7.5%

Q70. Total number of cars sold by Y in city M is 200 more than the total number of bikes sold by X in city L. The total number of cars sold by X in city M is what percentage of the total number of cars sold by X and Y together in city K?

1. 64%
2. 58%
3. 42%
4. 79%
5. 82%

Directions (71-75): Read the following line graph carefully and answer the questions given below. The line graph shows 1/3rd of the total items sold by five different shops in two different years.

800

700

600

500

400

300

200

100

0

A

B

C

D

E

2021

2022

Note: (i). Total number of items sold by each shops in 2023 is 20% more than that in 2021.

1. The total number of items sold by each shops in each year, which is given in the line graph, is one-third of the total items sold.

Q71. Total number of items sold by D in 2023 is what percentage less than the total number of items sold by A in 2022 (approx.)?

• 1. 23%
  2. 19%
  3. 11%
  4. 15%
  5. 8%

Q72. Find the ratio of the total number of items sold by B in 2022 to the total number of items sold by C in 2023.

1. 1:2
2. 2:3
3. 3:2
4. 3:4
5. 4:5

Q73. Find the difference between the total number of items sold by D and E together in 2023 and the total number of items sold by A and B together in 2021.

1. 180
2. 194
3. 150
4. 158
5. 100

Q74. Find the sum of the total number of items sold by A, B and C in 2023.

1. 4235
2. 4450
3. 4980
4. 4752
5. 4898

Q75. Total number of items sold by B and D together in 2023 is how many more or less than the total number of items sold by A in all three years together.

1. 2676
2. 2194
3. 2150
4. 2058
5. 2100

Directions (76-80): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

Q76. 188, 177, 199, 166, 210, 150, 221

1. 188
2. 221
3. 150
4. 199
5. 210

Q77. 18225, 6075, 2025, 675, 220, 75, 25

1. 25
2. 75
3. 220
4. 18225
5. 6075

Q78. 210, 228, 250, 274, 302, 332, 365

1. 302
2. 332
3. 210
4. 250
5. 365

Q79. 304, 300, 316, 332, 364, 428, 556

1. 300
2. 316
3. 304
4. 332
5. 428

Q80. 2194, 2175, 2152, 2123, 2092, 2054, 2014

1. 2014
2. 2054
3. 2194
4. 2092
5. 2123

Directions (81-85): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

Q81. 5.03% 𝑜𝑓 39.89 + 10.09% 𝑜𝑓 450 =?

1. 44
2. 47
3. 39
4. 54
5. 59

Q82. √840.99 + 14 𝑜𝑓 361.09 =?× 4.88

19

1. 59
2. 53
3. 65
4. 50
5. 43

Q83. 12.21³ − 108.02 = 24.90% 𝑜𝑓 399+?

1. 1090
2. 1120
3. 1240
4. 1520
5. 1130

Q84. 32.08% 𝑜𝑓 599 ÷ 1 =?2− 16

1.99 4

1. 29
2. 24
3. 17
4. 12
5. 20

Q85. (256.03 ÷ 3.98) =?÷ 12.01

15.99 1.99

1. 91
2. 96
3. 103
4. 87
5. 67

Q86. A, B and C together can do a work in 4 days, while B alone can do the same work in 24 days. If efficiency of C is 300% more than that of B, then find the difference between number of days taken by A and C to complete the work alone?

1. 18
2. 12
3. 11
4. 15
5. 20

Q87. The ratio of present age of P to age of Q four years ago is 2 : 1. Present age of R is equal to average of present age of P and Q. 16 years ago, age of R was 10 years. Find the sum of present age of P, Q and R (in years)?

1. 66 years
2. 78 years
3. 82 years
4. 99 years
5. 102 years

Q88. An amount of Rs. 12200 is partly invested in scheme A at 10% p.a. on compound interest for two years and in scheme B at the same rate on simple interest for four years. If the interest received from both the schemes is equal, then find the amount invested in scheme A?

1. Rs.4350
2. Rs.4340
3. Rs.4200
4. Rs.8000
5. Rs.8500

Q89. A, B and C started a business with investment of Rs. 12,000, Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 8,000 respectively. B invested only for ‘x’ months, while C left the business ‘x’ month before a year. If A got Rs 1800 out of annual profit of Rs 3200, then find the value of ‘x’?

1. 2
2. 8
3. 6
4. 4
5. 5

Q90. Train A crosses a 230 meters long platform in 29 seconds and train B crosses a 150 meters long platform in 24 seconds. Train B having length of 450 meters crosses train A in 160 seconds, while running in the same direction. Find how much time will the train A take to cross a 50 meters long bridge (Speed of train B > speed of train A)?

1. 16 seconds
2. 22 seconds
3. 20 seconds
4. 17 seconds
5. 25 seconds

Q91. The ratio of speed of a boat in still water to the speed of boat in upstream 4 : 3. The boat covers 560 km in 7 hours in downstream. Find the time taken by boat to cover 480 km distance in upstream?

1. 8 hours
2. 9 hours
3. 7 hours
4. 5 hours
5. 10 hours

Q92. A mark an article 60% above its cost price. When he allows 4d% discount on marked price he earns 28% profit. If he allows 6d% discount, then find the profit/ or loss %?

1. 12%
2. 15%
3. 18%
4. 20%
5. 24%

Q93. The ratio of milk and water in mixture A is 9: 5. The quantity of milk in mixture B is 20% more that in mixture A and quantity of water in mixture A is 25% more than that in mixture B. If sum of quantity of water of both mixture is 54 liters, then find the total quantity of mixture in A?

1. 72 liters
2. 64 liters
3. 84 liters
4. 75 liters
5. 80 liters

Q94. The average weight of 24 boys and 6 girls in a class is 40 kg. If the weight of all the girls excluded the average weight of the class is reduced by 4 kg, then find the average weight of all the six girls?

1. 52 kg
2. 56 kg
3. 58 kg
4. 55 kg
5. 51 kg

Q95. The ratio of area of a square and area of a rectangle is 3:2 respectively. The side of square is equal to length of the rectangle. The perimeter of the rectangle is 40 meters, then find the breadth of the rectangle?

1. 12 m
2. 8 m
3. 10 m
4. 15 m
5. 17 m

Directions (96 – 100): Read the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. The data shows the three different people (A, B & C) win or lose multiple games.

Total games win by B is 50 and the ratio of game win by A and games lose by B is 3:2 respectively. The ratio of total games loses by A to total games win by A is 4:3. The average of number of games lose by A and win by B is 105. Total games win by C is 20% more than total games loss of B and the ratio of total games win to lose by C is 4 : 5.

Q96. Find the ratio of the total games win by A and the total games lose by C.

1. 2:1
2. 1:1
3. 1:3
4. 4:3
5. 5:2

Q97. Total games lose by B is what percentage of the total games win by A?

1. 66.67%
2. 32.5%
3. 8.33%
4. 62.5%
5. None of these

Q98. Find the sum of total games lose by B and A.

1. 210
2. 220
3. 250
4. 320
5. 240

Q99. If the total games lose by D are 25% more than that of A and the total games win by D are five more than half of the total games win by C, then find the difference between the total games lose and total games win by D.

1. 147
2. 149
3. 142
4. 139
5. 129

Q100. Find the average of total games win by A & B and total games lose by C.

1. 98.25
2. 91.67
3. 83.33
4. 96.67
5. 129

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