IBPS Clerk Prelims 2024 Question Paper

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H purchase product one after another but not necessarily in the same order.

Two persons purchase product between D and F. One person purchase product between C and F. C purchase after F. As many persons purchase before E as after G. Neither F nor D is the first person to purchase a product. A purchase product three persons before B who is third last person to purchase a product. One person purchase product between A and E. F purchase before D.

Q1. Which one of the following is true?

1. A purchases product immediately after C
2. F is the fourth last person to purchase a product
3. H is second last person to purchase a product
4. D purchases product just after A
5. None is true

Q2. How many people purchase the product between A and H?

1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
5. More than Four

Q3. Four of the following five pair are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which among the following does not belong to that group?

1. E and C
2. D and G
3. A and B
4. F and D
5. C and G

Q4. As many persons purchase product after D is same as many persons purchase product between F and ____.

1. A
2. B
3. E
4. None of these
5. G

Q5. How many people purchase the product before B?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. Five
5. Six

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions, relationships between some elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer.

Q6. Statements: X ≥ Y > U = W, Z > U ≤ V

Conclusions:

• 1. V > W
  2. W < X
     1. If only conclusion I is true
     2. If only conclusion II is true
     3. If either conclusion I or II is true
     4. If both conclusions I and II are true
     5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q7. Statements: G ≥ H = I > E ≥ F

Conclusions:

• • • 1. G > F
      2. F = G
         1. If only conclusion I is true
         2. If only conclusion II is true
         3. If either conclusion I or II is true
         4. If both conclusions I and II are true
         5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q8. Statements: A ≤ B < C = D, F ≤ C = I

Conclusions:

1. A < C
2. D ≥ F
   1. If only conclusion I is true
   2. If only conclusion II is true
   3. If either conclusion I or II is true
   4. If both conclusions I and II are true
   5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q9. Statements: L > A = N > C ≥ Q

Conclusions:

• • 1. N < L
    2. A ≥ Q
       1. If only conclusion I is true
       2. If only conclusion II is true
       3. If either conclusion I or II is true
       4. If both conclusions I and II are true
       5. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q10. Statements: J ≥ K < L = M, O ≤ L > T

Conclusions:

• • • • 1. J > L
        2. O < M

If only conclusion I is true

If only conclusion II is true

If either conclusion I or II is true

If both conclusions I and II are true

If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q11. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the fourth, sixth, seventh and ninth letters from the left end of the word “PROMOTION”, then which of the following will be the third letter from the left end of the meaningful word thus formed. If more than one such word is formed mark X as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark Y as your answer?

1. M
2. Y
3. N
4. T
5. X

Directions (12-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in eight different months- January, April, May, August, September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.

P was born in a month having even number of days. U was born one month before P. As many persons were born before V is same as many persons were born after W. V was born three months after Q. Two persons were born between R and S who was born after R.

Q12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which among the following does not belong to that group?

1. Q
2. R
3. U
4. T
5. W

Q13. How many persons were born between Q and S?

1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
5. More than Four

Q14. As many persons were born before U is same as many persons were born after _.

1. Q
2. R
3. P
4. T
5. S

Q15. R was born how many months before W?

1. Seven
2. Four
3. Three
4. Five
5. Six

Q16. Which one of the following is true?

1. Three months gap between when Q and U were born
2. Q was not the first person to be born
3. P was born two persons before W
4. S was born in September
5. None is true

Q17. In the number ‘671923’, If digit is greater than 5 then 3 is subtracted from the given digit and if digit is less than 6 than 2 is added to the digit of the given digit, then which of the following digit are appears more than once?

1. Only 3
2. Only 4
3. Only 3 and 4
4. Only 4 and 5
5. None of these

Directions (18-22): Study the following alphanumeric-symbol series carefully to answer these questions.

W 2 % F 7 # M 3 K & 5 T @ 1 H 9 * L 8 D 4 P ? 6 J

Q18. How many such digits are there in the above arrangement which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a consonant?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. None
5. None of these

Q19. Find the odd one out?

1. 27%
2. P8?
3. M&3
4. TH@
5. *DL

Q20. If we dropped all the symbols then how many elements in between 4th letter from the left end and 3rd digit from the right end?

1. More than five
2. Three
3. Five
4. Two
5. Four

Q21. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement which are Immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?

1. One
2. Three
3. Two
4. Four
5. None of these

Q22. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement which are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?

1. One
2. Two
3. None
4. Four
5. None of these

Directions (23-25): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Six persons are arranged according to their height in descending order from left to right. B is taller than D but shorter than A who is not the tallest among all. D is taller than E. F is taller than D but shorter than C. As many persons are between C and F as many between F and D.

Q23. How many persons are shorter than C?

1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
5. More than four

Q24. If the sum of the heights F and B is 76cm and sum of the heights F and D is 65cm then what is the sum of the heights of B and D (If F is 12cm taller than B)?

1. 61cm
2. 53cm
3. 52cm
4. 54cm
5. 55cm

Q25. How many persons are between A and F?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
5. Three

Directions (26-29): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A Certain number of persons sit in a row facing north. R sits 2nd to the left of J. Q sits 4th to the right of R. Four persons sit between A and S. S sits 6th to the left of U. T sits exactly between S and U. As many persons sit to the left of K as many right of K. R sits 2nd from one of the extreme ends. M sits 2nd to the right of U. A and U are not an immediate neighbour. K sits 3rd to the right of A. One person sits between Q and A.

Q26. How many persons sit in the row?

1. 23
2. 14
3. 18
4. 21
5. 19

Q27. What is the position of K with respect to T?

1. 5th to the left
2. 3rd to the left
3. 4th to the right
4. 5th to the right
5. Immediate left

Q28. How many persons sit between J and S?

1. Four
2. Nine
3. Eight
4. Six
5. Seven

Q29. Which of the following is true?

• 1. Q sits 5th from one of the extreme ends
  2. Two persons sit between S and T
  3. K and Q are not an immediate neighbour
     1. Both II and III
     2. Both I and II
     3. Only II
     4. Only III
     5. All I, II and III

Q30. In the given number ‘479851326’, What is the resultant difference between the sum of all the even digits and sum of all the odd digits?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 0

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight persons sit around a circular table facing inside the centre. E sits 2nd to the right of C. Two persons sit between E and A. F is not an immediate neighbour of G. B sits opposite to D. G sits 2nd to the left of H. D and H are not an immediate neighbour.

Q31. What is the position of C with respect to A?

1. 2nd to the right
2. 5th to the left
3. 3rd to the left
4. Immediate right
5. Immediate left

Q32. How many persons sit between D and H, when counted from the left of H?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None

Q33. Which of the following is true?

1. G sits 2nd to the left of E
2. A does not face F
3. E and D are immediate neighbours
4. G sits two persons away from B
5. None is true

Q34. Who sits immediately to the right of G?

1. A
2. C
3. E
4. F
5. B

Q35. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of B?

1. D, E
2. F, A
3. C, H
4. G, H
5. C, D

Directions (36-44): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

In a small village nestled in the heart of the Deccan Plateau, lived a remarkable woman named Laxmi. From a young age, she was deeply passionate about farming, an interest that set her apart in her community. Her journey began in her twenties when she joined a local community called Sangam, an initiative that aimed to increase awareness about indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices. Sangam was more than just a community; it was a movement dedicated to preserving the rich agricultural heritage of the region. Laxmi quickly became a prominent member of Sangam, thanks to her vast knowledge and unwavering commitment to the cause. She took up the cultivation of various crops such as cereals, pulses, and oilseeds, mastering the techniques that had been passed down through generations. But Laxmi didn’t stop at just farming; she saw the potential for these crops to transform her village’s economy and way of life. Recognizing the need for education, Laxmi began organizing workshops and events where she taught the villagers the art of farming these indigenous products. She shared the benefits of traditional agricultural practices, emphasizing their role in ensuring food security and promoting sustainability. One of her key lessons was the importance of storing agricultural products, a practice that could protect the community from the uncertainties of weather and market fluctuations.

Laxmi’s efforts bore fruit as more and more villagers embraced her teachings. The community saw a significant increase in crop yields, and the stored produce became a vital resource during lean periods. Beyond farming, Laxmi also advocated for the use of organic methods, which not only improved the soil health but also produced healthier, chemical-free food for the villagers. Through her tireless work, Laxmi transformed her village, making it a model of sustainable living and self-reliance.

Q36. Which of the following statements is incorrect based on the information given in the passage?

1. Laxmi was a member of a community called Sangam, which aimed to increase awareness about indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices.
2. Laxmi organized workshops and events to educate villagers on the benefits of traditional farming methods.
3. The villagers learned to store agricultural products, which became a vital resource during lean periods, thanks to Laxmi’s teachings.
4. Laxmi started farming of only cereals, focusing on a single crop to ensure high yields and consistency in farming practices.
5. Laxmi advocated for organic farming methods to improve soil health and produce healthier, chemical- free food for the villagers.

Q37. What was the primary objective of the community called Sangam that Laxmi joined in her twenties?

1. To promote modern farming techniques that integrate advanced machinery and technology for increased agricultural productivity.
2. To raise awareness about indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices that help preserve the region’s agricultural heritage.
3. To provide financial support to farmers in the form of low-interest loans and grants to improve their economic stability.
4. To introduce genetically modified crops that promise higher yields and resistance to pests and diseases.
5. To train villagers in animal husbandry, focusing on improving livestock care and increasing dairy production.

Q38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct based on the information given in the passage?

• 1. Laxmi joined the Sangam community in her twenties to promote the use of modern farming technologies.
  2. Laxmi emphasized the importance of storing agricultural products to protect the community from uncertainties.
  3. Laxmi’s efforts led to a significant increase in crop yields and the adoption of organic farming methods in the village.
     1. Only I is correct.
     2. Only II is correct.
     3. Only III is correct.
     4. Both I and II are correct.
     5. Both II and III are correct.

Q39. Which practice did Laxmi emphasize as essential to protect the community from the uncertainties of weather and market fluctuations?

1. Exporting crops to other regions, which could provide a higher income but involves risks associated with market demand and transport.
2. Relying on monsoon rains as the primary source of water for crops, despite the increasing unpredictability of climate patterns.
3. Switching to cash crops that offer potentially higher immediate profits but may compromise long-term soil fertility and food security.
4. Using chemical fertilizers that promise quick results in boosting crop yields but can lead to soil degradation over time.
5. Storing agricultural products in well-maintained facilities to ensure a stable food supply and financial security during times of scarcity or poor harvests.

Q40. What role did Laxmi play in preserving the agricultural heritage of her region?

1. She documented ancient farming techniques and published them in a local journal.
2. She advocated for the use of indigenous crops and traditional farming methods to maintain the region’s agricultural practices.
3. She imported seeds from other regions to diversify the village’s agricultural output.
4. She worked with local government to introduce subsidies for farmers using organic methods.
5. She built a museum to showcase the history of farming in her village.

Q41. What was one of the main reasons Laxmi organized events in her village?

1. To celebrate local festivals and strengthen the village’s cultural identity.
2. To introduce modern agricultural technologies that could enhance crop production.
3. To teach the villagers about the benefits of farming indigenous products and how these could lead to greater self-reliance.
4. To attract investors and increase funding for the village’s agricultural projects.
5. To establish connections with other farming communities for the exchange of knowledge and resources.

Q42. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to "EVENTS" as used in the passage?

1. Meets
2. Occurrences
3. Incidents
4. Celebrations
5. Companies

Q43. What additional benefit did Laxmi promote through the use of organic farming methods, according to the passage?

1. Higher profits from export markets that demand organically grown produce, thereby opening up new revenue streams for the village farmers.
2. Lower costs due to reduced labor and the avoidance of expensive chemical inputs, making farming more economically viable for small-scale farmers.
3. Faster crop growth, allowing farmers to harvest more frequently and meet the growing demand for agricultural products in local and regional markets.
4. Improvement in soil health and the production of chemical-free food, which contributes to better nutrition and long-term sustainability for the community.
5. Easier farming techniques that reduce the physical strain on farmers, enabling them to manage larger plots of land with less effort and time.

Q44. Which of the following words has a similar meaning to "STORED" as used in the passage?

1. Collected
2. Preserved
3. Stocked
4. Gathered
5. Accumulated

Q45. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

1. After the long hike, she lay down on the grass, exhausted but content
2. Amidst the flickering twilight, she strained to seen the distant silhouette.
3. The stock prices rise whenever there is positive news about the company.
4. As tensions rise in the negotiations, both sides are seeking a compromise.
5. All are correct

Q46. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

1. India is knowing for its beautiful culture and different types of crafts and traditions.
2. The central bank raised interest rates to combat rising inflation, hoping to stabilize the economy.
3. The government introduced a subsidy for renewable energy projects to encourage investment.
4. The absence of quality land records specifically affects the ability of marginal farmers to gain access to credit from formal organisations.
5. All are correct

Q47. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

1. Bamboo is a sustainable, eco-friendly and affordable alternative to plastic, wood and even aluminum.
2. The manifestation of ‘inclusive development of India’ can be evident from its impact on regional development.
3. She felt her spirits rise when she heard the good news.
4. The availability of both surface and groundwater varying from one region to another.
5. All are correct

Q48. Given below are four sentences, out of which one sentence is grammatically incorrect. Choose the option which points out the grammatically incorrect sentence. If all sentences are correct. Choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

1. Foreign investment has significantly boosted the local economy, creating new jobs and opportunities.
2. Artificial intelligence is rapidly evolving, with the potential to transform industries across the globe.
3. Protecting endanger species is crucial for maintaining biodiversity and ecological balance.
4. The ancient ruins provide a glimpse into a civilization that once thrived thousands of years ago
5. All are correct

Directions (49-52): In each question a part is omitted which is then replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit into the blank most appropriately.

Q49. The snakes silently slide the tall grass, barely making a sound.

1. off
2. through
3. away
4. down
5. up

Q50. She felt a mix of excitement and nervousness while into the unknown territory for

the first time.

1. resembling
2. gauging
3. expanding
4. floating
5. venturing

Q51. He kept going his dreams, despite the many obstacles in his path.

1. up
2. before
3. out
4. after

aroundQ52. The collector proudly displayed the first of the rare comic book in a glass

case.

1. depth
2. edition
3. emphasis
4. ability
5. moment

Directions (53-57): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

• 1. Trust in institutions and interpersonal trust are positively correlated with economic prosperity, as they reduce transaction costs and encourage investment.
  2. The survey also highlighted that countries with higher trust levels tend to have better governance, which further contributes to their economic success.
  3. A recent survey explored the relationship between trust and prosperity, revealing a strong link between the two.
  4. Consequently, nations that foster trust within their societies often experience greater economic growth and stability.
  5. According to the survey, trust not only enhances social cohesion but also plays a crucial role in facilitating economic transactions.

Q53. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) A

(c) E

(d) C

(e) B

Q54. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) D

(c) B

(d) E

(e) C

Q55. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) E

(c) D

(d) A

(e) B

Q56. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B

(b) E

(c) D

(d) C

(e) A

Q57. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) A

(c) E

(d) B

(e) D

Q58. A word has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the statement(s) where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.

KNEE

1. She is so powerful that even her toughest opponents were forced to bend their knees in submission.
2. While playing basketball, she injured her knee when she landed awkwardly after a jump.
3. To make the perfect loaf of bread, you need to knee the dough until it becomes smooth and elastic.
   1. Only (III)
   2. Both (I) and (II)
   3. Both (II) and (III)
   4. Only (I)
   5. All of these

Directions (59-61): In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other.

Q59. The paper pulled (A) into (B) the inner part of the copy machine and had to be jammed (C) out (D)

by the printer technician.

1. A-B
2. C-D
3. A-C
4. B-D
5. No interchange required

Q60. Mrs. Griffin has enough (A) about going (B) her own school but is worried that she wouldn’t have

thought (C) students to keep it opening (D).

1. A-B
2. C-D
3. A-B & C-D
4. A-C & B-D
5. No interchange required

Q61. It was unfortunate that our team’s halftime (A) were raised (B) so high during spirits (C), because we were subsequently crushed (D).

1. A-C
2. C-B
3. A-B
4. B-D
5. No interchange required

Directions (62-65): In the following questions, a sentence is provided with a highlighted phrase that may be incorrect. If the highlighted phrase is incorrect, choose the option that best replaces the phrase to make the sentence both grammatically and contextually correct.

Q62. Despite renewable energy’s potential, the global economy remains heavily reliant in fossil fuels, complicating the shift to sustainability.

1. remain heavily reliant in (b)remained heavily reliant in
2. remaining heavily reliant on
3. remains heavily reliant on
4. No correction required

Q63. Digital platforms have intensified ideological divisions, leading at concerns about social media’s impact on public discourse and dialogue.

1. who lead to concerns about
2. leading to concerns about
3. lead to concerns about
4. leading to concerns on
5. No correction required

Q64. Cognitive biases often distorting our perception of reality, leading to decisions that contradict rational thinking.

1. often distort our perception of reality
2. often distorted our perception of reality
3. often distorts our perception of reality
4. often distort our perception in reality
5. No correction required

Q65. Before I had sat in the car, the driver opened the door for me.

1. Before I have sat
2. Before I sat in the car
3. Once I had been sitting
4. Before I am sitting
5. No replacement required

Directions (66-70): The graph shows the total number of orders received by five restaurants (A, B, C , D & E). Read the line graph and answer the following questions.

Q66. Find the average number ordered received by A, B and D.

1. 76
2. 72
3. 24
4. 66
5. 42

Q67. The orders received by D, 25% are veg orders and rest are non- veg orders, then find the non- veg orders received by D.

1. 80
2. 72
3. 84
4. 76
5. 92

Q68. Restaurant X received 33.37% more orders than that of A and Restaurant Y received 12.5% more orders than E. find the total orders received by X and Y.

1. 195
2. 190
3. 194
4. 196
5. 192

Q69. Find the orders received by A and E together are what percent more/less than that of B and C together.

1. 15%
2. 66.66%
3. 33.33%
4. 20%
5. 14.28%

Q70. Find the ratio of orders received by E to orders received B and D together.

1. 22:39
2. 39:22
3. 19:14
4. 19:16
5. 12:13

Q71. In April 2019, a man has Rs 17500 and it is increased by 20% every year in the starting of April. If man spends 60% of total amount in April 2021, then find total amount (in Rs.) man has at the end of April 2021?

1. 15120
2. 10060
3. 9080
4. 10080
5. 12080

Q72. The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangle is 4 : 3 and area of the rectangle is 300 cm square. If the breadth of rectangle decreased by 20% and the length is increased by 10%, then find the new perimeter (in cm) of the rectangle?

1. 68
2. 70
3. 60
4. 84
5. 48

Q73. A and B started a business with some amount. After 9 months, A left the business. At the end of a year, the profit share of A and B is in the ratio of 9 : 16. Find the ratio of investment of A and B respectively?

1. 1 : 3
2. 3 : 4
3. 2 : 3
4. 4 : 3
5. 3 : 5

Q74. A, B and C together can do a work in 4 days, while B and C together can do the same work in 20/3 days. Find in how many days A alone can do 60% of the work?

1. 20
2. 18
3. 8
4. 6
5. 24

Q75. The speed of a train is 72 km/hr and it crosses a pole in 16 seconds. If speed of the train is increased by 12 meters/second, then find the time taken by the train to cross the same pole (in seconds)?

1. 20
2. 12
3. 15
4. 5
5. 10

Q76. A man invested Rs X in scheme A at the rate of 20% p.a. for two years on compound interest annually. Also, he invested same amount in scheme B at rate of 30% p.a. for two years on simple interest. If the difference between interest received from both schemes is Rs 896, then find the value of X (in Rs.)?

1. 6000
2. 6400
3. 4800
4. 5600
5. 3600

Q77. Cost price of two articles A and B is equal. Article A sold at profit of 20% and article B sold at loss of 30%, so overall loss of Rs 50 occurred. For received a profit of 40%, article B should sell at what price (in Rs)?

1. 700
2. 840
3. 560
4. 420
5. 980

Directions (78-82): Find the missing term of the given series. Q78. 100, 101, 103, 109, 133, ?

1. 253
2. 216
3. 240
4. 200
5. 210

Q79. 12600, 1800, 300, 60, ?, 5

1. 15
2. 16
3. 40
4. 20
5. 30

Q80. ?, 189, 176, 193, 172, 197

1. 150
2. 180
3. 140
4. 120
5. 130

Q81. 8, 224, 249, 313, 322, ?

1. 315
2. 330
3. 340
4. 320
5. 300

Q82. 21, ?, 135, 544, 2725, 16356

1. 105
2. 84
3. 100
4. 24
5. 44

Q83. Seven years hence, the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 2:1. If the ratio of age of A to that of B three years hence will be 5:2, then find the present age (in years) of B?

1. 12
2. 5
3. 9
4. 6
5. 8

Q84. The difference of two positive numbers is 2. If 50% of bigger number is equal to 60% of smaller number, then find the bigger number?

1. 12
2. 10
3. 9
4. 14
5. 16

Q85. A vessel contains 120 liters mixture of milk and water and water is 25% of milk in the vessel. If 12 liters of water added in the vessel, then find the ratio of water to milk in the resulting mixture?

1. 5 : 8
2. 8 : 3
3. 3 : 8
4. 1 : 5
5. 2 : 3

Q86. The ratio of upstream speed of a boat and speed of current is 4:1. If in downstream the boat can cover 60 km in 2.5 hours, then find out the speed of current?

1. 6 kmph
2. 4 kmph
3. 5 kmph
4. 8 kmph
5. 3 kmph

Q87. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 150% and the denominator of the fraction is decreased by 25%, the resultant fraction is of 8. What is the original fraction.?

1. 2/7
2. 4/15
3. 2/9
4. 4/17
5. 5/18

Directions (88 -100): What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the place of question mark.

Q88.

1. 4
2. 12
3. 8
4. 6
5. 10

Q89.

1. 0.5
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2
5. 4

Q90.

1. 1.5
2. 2.25
3. 1.75
4. 2
5. 2.75

Q91.

1. 20
2. 45
3. 25
4. 50
5. 60

Q92.

1. 20
2. 5
3. 10
4. 15
5. 25

Q93. 45% of 800 + 60 – 270 = ?

1. 90
2. 60
3. 120
4. 180
5. 150

Q94.

1. 846
2. 868
3. 818
4. 826
5. 834

Q95.

1. 898
2. 972
3. 540
4. 1056
5. 752

Q96. 4 of 143 ÷ 26 × 12 – 200 = ?

1. 58
2. 64
3. 72
4. 80
5. 74

Q97.

1. 281
2. 300
3. 290
4. 315
5. None of these

Q98.

1. -36
2. 36
3. -29
4. 29
5. None of these

Q99. 1512 ÷36+44×32= ?

1. 1450
2. 1350
3. 1150
4. 1460
5. None of these

Q100.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 

Refer Bank Exam Syllabus & Pattern: IBPS, SBI, RRB – PO & Clerk

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