IBPS PO Prelims – Free Mock Test (2026)

100 Qs (60 mins)

English (Verbal Ability) – 30 Qs | Quantitative Aptitude – 35 Qs | Logical Reasoning – 35 Qs

Time: 20 mins for each section

IBPS PO Prelims

Section: Verbal

30 Qs | 20 mins
Correct Ans: +1
Incorrect Ans: -0.25

Name

City

College

Choose the synonym for the word 'vibrant'

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

The Great Barrier Reef, located in the Coral Sea off the coast of Queensland, Australia, is the world's largest coral reef system. Stretching over 2,300 kilometers, it is home to a multitude of marine life and is known for its vibrant and diverse ecosystems. It is one of the seven wonders of the natural world and is the only living thing on Earth visible from space.

The reef system comprises nearly 3,000 individual reefs and 900 islands. It is a habitat for many endangered species and holds immense scientific value in studying the health of our oceans. Its marine life includes 30 species of whales, dolphins, and porpoises, more than 1,500 species of fish, and over 400 types of coral.

Unfortunately, the Great Barrier Reef faces severe threats from climate change, which leads to warmer sea temperatures and more frequent and severe cyclones, causing coral bleaching and loss of marine biodiversity. It is a significant concern for scientists and environmentalists alike, as the reef plays a vital role in maintaining the balance of the world's marine ecosystem.

Dull

Monotonous

Vivid

Bleak

Dreary

None

Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia

Pacific Ocean, near California, USA

Indian Ocean, near Mumbai, India

Atlantic Ocean, near Florida, USA

Mediterranean Sea, near Italy

None

Which of the following is correct according to the passage? A. The Great Barrier Reef is home to over 500 species of fish. B. The Great Barrier Reef is the largest coral reef system in the world. C. The Great Barrier Reef is located in the Indian Ocean.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Only A

Only B

Only C

Both A and B

Both B and C

None

What does the phrase 'faces severe threats' mean as used in the passage?

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

It is literally facing dangerous animals

It is in danger of significant harm or destruction

It is looking at something threatening

It is dealing with legal threats

None

Choose the antonym for the word 'endangered'

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Threatened

Vulnerable

Risky

Secure

Perilous

None

Fill in the blank from the passage: "The Great Barrier Reef is the only living thing on Earth ____ from space."

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Invisible

Hidden

Visible

Absent

Removed

None

Which of the following is incorrect according to the passage? A. The Great Barrier Reef is one of the seven wonders of the natural world. B. The Great Barrier Reef is located in the Pacific Ocean. C. The reef system comprises nearly 3,000 individual reefs.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Only A

Only B

Only C

Both A and B

Both B and C

None

What is a significant concern for the Great Barrier Reef according to the passage?

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Tourism

Fishing

Climate change

Sharks

Overpopulation

None

According to the passage, how long does the Great Barrier Reef stretch over?

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

1,500 kilometers

2,300 kilometers

3,000 kilometers

4,000 kilometers

5,000 kilometers

None

10.

According to the passage, what role does the Great Barrier Reef play?

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

It's a tourist attraction

It serves as a shipping route

It maintains the balance of the world's marine ecosystem

It provides employment to the local population

It is a source of food

None

11.

The government has halted all activities due to the recent crisis.

In the given sentence a word has been emphasized. Select the best alternative for the emphasized word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

Paused

Expedited

Accelerated

Proceeded

None

12.

The professor praised the student for his excellent research work.

In the given sentence a word has been emphasized. Select the best alternative for the emphasized word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

Criticized

Complimented

Condemned

Demoralized

None

13.

The desert region was barren and devoid of vegetation.

In the given sentence a word has been emphasized. Select the best alternative for the emphasized word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.

Fertile

Infertile

Flourishing

Overgrown

None

14.

The manager showing sympathy for his employees has improved the work environment

A sentence/part of the sentence is emphasized. Five alternatives are given to the emphasized part, which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and choose the option corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to ‘No improvement required’.

shows sympathy

had shown sympathy

showing sympathies

has shown sympathy

No improvement required

None

15.

They working on a new project which is due next month.

Works on

Are working on

Is working on

Work on

No improvement required

None

16.

A. focused on B. we have always C. delivering the best customer service D. to all our clients E. and believe in

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

BEACD

EACDB

BCEAD

ABCDE

EABCD

None

17.

A. the importance of a healthy lifestyle B. discusses the new health guide C. and its implications D. in today's society E. this article

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

EABCD

BCADE

ABCDE

EACBD

EDCBA

None

18.

A. to promote sustainability B. with our efforts C. we are trying D. in the local community E. and environmental conservation

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

CCBDA

ABCDE

BACDE

CBEDA

ECDBA

None

19.

A. misuse of technology B. for criminal activities C. there has been an increase in D. over the past few years E. the

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

ECABD

CDBAE

ABCDE

ECDBA

ABDEC

None

20.

A. for various environmental issues B. responsible C. human activities are largely D. across the globe E. especially climate change

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

CEABD

CDBAE

ABCDE

ECDBA

CEADB

None

21.

The concept of virtual learning (A)/ have gained popularity (B)/ in recent years due (C)/ to technological advancements. (D)/ No Error (E)

Read the sentence below to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors in punctuation, if any)

None

22.

With rise in temperature (A)/ it's crucial to stay hydrated (B)/ and avoid outdoor activities (C)/ during peak hours. (D)/ No Error (E)

None

23.

The advancement of technology (A)/ has enable humans (B)/ to explore space (C)/ and study celestial bodies. (D)/ No error (E)

None

24.

She have (A)/ been practicing piano (B)/ for more than 5 years (C)/ and is quite skilled at it. (D)/ No Error (E)

None

25.

The cost of living in the city (A)/ are quite high (B)/ and continues to rise (C)/ with each passing year. (D)/ No error (E)

None

26.

Which of the following is the FIRST statement?

Below are given seven sentences, out of which the sentence numbered 5 has been correctly placed and is fixed. The rest of the sentences A, B, C, D, E, F must be arranged correctly to form a logical order. Keep in mind that there are a total of seven sentences, with the 5th sentence already given.

The employees showed high motivation and enthusiasm towards the new project
These team building exercises proved to be extremely beneficial for the overall development of the employees
The organization decided to conduct regular team building exercises to foster a better work environment
The project was completed within the stipulated time frame and was a huge success.
With the successful completion of the project, the organization recognized and rewarded the efforts of the employees
The team worked diligently on the project, with regular meetings and discussions to address any issues
The organization had always emphasized the importance of teamwork and effective communication

None

27.

Which of the following is the SECOND statement?

The employees showed high motivation and enthusiasm towards the new project
These team building exercises proved to be extremely beneficial for the overall development of the employees
The organization decided to conduct regular team building exercises to foster a better work environment
The project was completed within the stipulated time frame and was a huge success.
With the successful completion of the project, the organization recognized and rewarded the efforts of the employees
The team worked diligently on the project, with regular meetings and discussions to address any issues
The organization had always emphasized the importance of teamwork and effective communication

None

28.

Which of the following is the THIRD statement?

The employees showed high motivation and enthusiasm towards the new project
These team building exercises proved to be extremely beneficial for the overall development of the employees
The organization decided to conduct regular team building exercises to foster a better work environment
The project was completed within the stipulated time frame and was a huge success.
With the successful completion of the project, the organization recognized and rewarded the efforts of the employees
The team worked diligently on the project, with regular meetings and discussions to address any issues
The organization had always emphasized the importance of teamwork and effective communication

None

29.

Which of the following is the SIXTH statement?

The employees showed high motivation and enthusiasm towards the new project
These team building exercises proved to be extremely beneficial for the overall development of the employees
The organization decided to conduct regular team building exercises to foster a better work environment
The project was completed within the stipulated time frame and was a huge success.
With the successful completion of the project, the organization recognized and rewarded the efforts of the employees
The team worked diligently on the project, with regular meetings and discussions to address any issues
The organization had always emphasized the importance of teamwork and effective communication

None

30.

Which of the following is the SEVENTH statement?

The employees showed high motivation and enthusiasm towards the new project
These team building exercises proved to be extremely beneficial for the overall development of the employees
The organization decided to conduct regular team building exercises to foster a better work environment
The project was completed within the stipulated time frame and was a huge success.
With the successful completion of the project, the organization recognized and rewarded the efforts of the employees
The team worked diligently on the project, with regular meetings and discussions to address any issues
The organization had always emphasized the importance of teamwork and effective communication

None

1 out of 30

IBPS PO Prelims

Section: Quant

35 Qs | 20 mins
Correct Ans: +1
Incorrect Ans: -0.25

Name

City

College

$649.99 ÷ 4.98 + 24.95 × (4^2) – 69.99 × 2.98 + √16999.99 = ?$

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

180

320

460

100

None

$[{(4.97^3) × (6.07^3)} / {(5.17^4)× 4.94}^2] × 4.97^6 = 5.13^?$

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

None

(524.14 – 224.34) + (872.86 – 442.85) = ? – (523.23 – 223.56)

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

970

1010

990

1050

1030

None

$44.97% of 360.05 + 31.02% of 1299.97 = ?^2 – 5.99% of 400.02$

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

None

$(87.98 + 52.034) × (33.2 – 24.67) = ? + (30.98% of 299.06)$

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

1180

1210

1200

1150

1189

None

If the selling price of each watch sold by company 'A' in any of the given months is equal to 195 Rs. then find the total revenue generated by company 'A' by selling all the watches in all four months together?

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Three companies, 'A', 'B', and 'C' sold a total of 4500 watches in January, February, March, and April. The ratio of watches sold by company 'A' in January and February is 6 : 5. The total number of watches sold by company 'B' in all four months is 1900. The number of watches sold by the company 'A' in March is 30% less than the number of watches sold by the same company in April. In January, the total number of watches sold by companies 'A', 'B', and 'C' was 1300. The number of watches sold by company 'A' in February was 14.28% less than that by company 'B' in March. The total number of watches sold by company 'A' in January was 600. Watches sold by company 'C' in April were 360 more than that in February.

205000

305000

405000

505000

605000

None

Find the ratio of the number of watches sold by company 'A' in April to watches sold by company 'B' in January?

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

6 :8

7 : 8

9 : 8

10 : 8

11 : 8

None

The average number of watches sold in March, April, and May by company 'C' is 400. Find the number of watches sold in May by the same company?

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

330

340

350

360

370

None

Find the average number of watches sold in February and March by company 'A'?

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

350

500

650

800

950

None

10.

Find the total number of watches sold by both 'A', 'B' and 'C' together in March month?

Answer the questions based on the information given below.

690

790

890

990

1090

None

11.

The ratio of the area of a circle to the area of a square is 13 : 16 and the area of a rectangle is 196cm². If the length of a rectangle is equal to the side of the square and the ratio of the breadth and length of a rectangle is 4 : 7. Then, find the radius of a circle.

6 cm

8 cm

10 cm

5 cm

7 cm

None

12.

The speed of train B is 70 kmph. It met with an accident to the train standing at the station. If the speed of the train B was 25 kmph lesser, then it would have taken 2 hours more to meet the accident. Find the distance covered by the train.

260 km

280 km

220 km

250 km

300 km

None

13.

A and B can together finish a work in 28 days. They worked together for 18 days and then B left. After another 14 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can finish the job?

50 days

35 days

45 days

40 days

None of these

None

14.

A mixture contains 70 litre of milk. y litre of solution is taken out and is replaced by water. This process is repeated two times. If the final quantity of milk is 50.4 litres, then find the value of y.

10 litres

9 litres

8 litres

7 litres

None of these

None

15.

The ratio of school ages of Pritam and Kusum is 7 : 8. If the ratio between the one-third age of Pritam and half of Kusum’s age is 7 : 12. Then what is the school-age of Kusum?

18 years

16 years

14 years

Can't be determined

None of the above

None

16.

14, 16, 34, 105, 420, 2105

A wrong number is given in the following number series. Find out the wrong number.

2105

105

420

None

17.

18, 20, 42, 135, 550, 2755

A wrong number is given in the following number series. Find out the wrong number.

2755

550

135

None

18.

3, 6, 18, 72, 300, 2160

A wrong number is given in the following number series. Find out the wrong number.

300

2160

None

19.

13, 29, 69, 117, 237, 477

A wrong number is given in the following number series. Find out the wrong number.

117

237

477

None

20.

125, 184, 272, 389, 533, 705

A wrong number is given in the following number series. Find out the wrong number.

705

125

184

389

533

None

21.

Aditya gives Rs 1000 to Ravi at simple interest with a condition that the rate of interest will increase by 2% per year. The Total interest after 3 years is Rs. 10,800 and the rate of interest for first year is 8%.

Rs. 40,000

Rs. 42,000

Rs. 44,000

Rs. 46,000

Rs. 48,000

None

22.

A man who can swim 52 m/min in still water swims 220 m against the current and 220 m with the current. If the difference between those two times is 12 minutes, find the speed of the current.

34 m/min

38 m/min

32 m/min

28 m/min

None of these

None

23.

Two persons Ramu and Shamu started a business in which Ramu invested Rs. 55000, Shamu invested Rs. 85000, after 5 months Tinku joined them with a certain amount. At the end of the year, a total profit of Rs. 42000 was recorded. Tinku's share in the profit was Rs. 16000, then find Tinku's investment in the business.

Rs. 125000

Rs. 115000

Rs. 120000

Rs. 110000

Rs. 100000

None

24.

Abhay bought a bike for Rs. 14200 and sells it at a loss of 20%. The selling price of the bike is equal to the cost price of his mobile. At what price should he sell his mobile to incur a profit of 55% on it?

Rs. 13450

Rs. 16640

Rs. 16226

Rs. 17236

Rs. 17226

None

25.

The average salary of the staff of a Tech company is Rs. 2200 per day. The average salary of the Tech Leads is Rs. 6000 and that of the freshers is Rs. 1300. If the number of Tech Leads is 18, then find the number of freshers in the company.

None of the above

None

26.

Which grade has the highest average study hours per subject?

Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table presents the number of hours studied in different subjects by students in four different grades of a school.

Grade 9

Grade 10

Grade 11

Grade 12

All have the same

None

27.

If Grade 9 requires a 20% increase in Mathematics hours to match the Mathematics study hours of Grade 10, by how many hours should they increase their study time?

Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table presents the number of hours studied in different subjects by students in four different grades of a school.

250 hours

300 hours

350 hours

400 hours

450 hours

None

28.

What is the ratio of total study hours from Grade 9 to Grade 12 for Physics and Chemistry combined?

Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table presents the number of hours studied in different subjects by students in four different grades of a school.

11:15

15:19

17:23

23:29

9:13

None

29.

If Grade 11 decides to increase their total study hours by 10% uniformly across all subjects, how many extra hours will they have to study for English?

Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table presents the number of hours studied in different subjects by students in four different grades of a school.

120 hours

200 hours

220 hours

250 hours

270 hours

None

30.

The total study hours for all grades combined is 20000 hours. What percentage of the total hours is spent on studying English?

Answer the questions based on the information given below. The table presents the number of hours studied in different subjects by students in four different grades of a school.

22%

24%

26%

28%

30%

None

31.

If the number of 'international' songs added to favorites from platforms 'A', 'B', and 'E' is equal and the total number of songs 'added to favorites' from platforms 'A', 'B', and 'E' together is equal to 420, then find the average number of 'international' songs added to favorites from each of these platforms?

Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:

The line graph represents the percentage of total songs that were added to favorites (both domestic and international) out of the total number of songs listened to on each platform.

The table given below shows the number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from each particular platform

120

180

240

300

None

32.

The number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from another platform 'F' is 10% more than that from platform 'D' and the number of 'international' songs added to favorites from platform 'F' is 372 more than that of 'domestic' songs. If the percentage of the total number of 'songs' added to favorites from platform 'F' is same as that of platform 'A', then what is the total number of songs listened to on platform 'F'?

Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:

The line graph represents the percentage of total songs that were added to favorites (both domestic and international) out of the total number of songs listened to on each platform.

The table given below shows the number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from each particular platform

800

850

900

950

1000

None

33.

The difference between the total number of 'listened' songs on platform 'C' and the number of 'international' songs added to favorites from the same platform is 220. If the number of 'songs' added to favorites is 70% of the total number of songs 'listened' to on platform 'C', then find the number of 'songs' from platform 'C' which were added to favorites?

Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:

The line graph represents the percentage of total songs that were added to favorites (both domestic and international) out of the total number of songs listened to on each platform.

The table given below shows the number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from each particular platform

350

370

390

410

430

None

34.

If the total number of 'international' songs added to favorites from platform 'B' and platform 'D' is 200 and 225 respectively, then find the ratio between the total number of 'listened' songs on platform 'B' and 'D' together and the total number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from platforms 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D' together?

Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:

The line graph represents the percentage of total songs that were added to favorites (both domestic and international) out of the total number of songs listened to on each platform.

The table given below shows the number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from each particular platform

50 : 9

60 : 9

70 : 9

80 : 9

90 : 9

None

35.

If the total number of songs added to favorites from platforms 'A' and 'E' together is equal to 300 and the total number of 'listened' songs on platform A is 200% more than that on platform 'E', then find the total number of 'international' songs added to favorites from platform 'A' and 'E' together?

Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:

The line graph represents the percentage of total songs that were added to favorites (both domestic and international) out of the total number of songs listened to on each platform.

The table given below shows the number of 'domestic' songs added to favorites from each particular platform

255

265

275

285

295

None

1 out of 35

IBPS PO Prelims

Section: Logical Reasoning

35 Qs | 20 mins
Correct Ans: +1
Incorrect Ans: -0.25

Name

City

College

Who is sitting on the immediate right of D?

Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions. Eight people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting in a circle facing the center. D is sitting third to the left of A. H is sitting fourth to the right of D. G is sitting exactly between D and B. E is sitting third to the right of H. Only one person sits between E and F. C is not an immediate neighbor of either D or A.

None

Which of the following is correct regarding the position of F with respect to A?

Third to the right

Second to the right

Immediate left

Third to the left

Immediate right

None

Who is sitting between D and A?

None

Who is sitting on the immediate left of C?

None

Who is sitting opposite to E?

None

What is the code for 'respect'?

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. In a certain code, 'love for all humans' is coded as 'jo ka la pa', 'all must respect each' is coded as 'ka na ra sa' , 'humans must be kind' is coded as ' la na da sa' , 'be kind love all' is coded as 'da sa jo ka'.

None

If the code for 'love for humans' is 'jo ka la' then what is the code for 'all'?

None

'pa' code represents which word?

for

love

humans

either option II or IV

None

What is the possible code of "all must respect humans"?

ka na ra la

na ka sa jo

la na ka pa

pa na ka sa

na ka sa da

None

10.

'da' code represents which word?

kind

love

must

all

None

11.

Who played 45 matches?

Read the following comprehension and answer the following questions given below.

Five People P, Q, R, S and T played some soccer matches 45, 30, 15, 60, 35 in five different months February, March, June, July, and September but not necessarily the same. The one who played 35 matches played in the month of having 30 days. Only one person played between the one who played 35 and S. T played the matches just before R. The one who played 60 matches played at last. Only one person played between R and S. The one who played 15 matches played just before the one who played 35 matches. P played before Q. More than 2 People played between T and Q.

Either option I or III

None

12.

Who played the least number of matches?

Read the following comprehension and answer the following questions given below.

Cannot determine

None

13.

How many matches did Q play?

Read the following comprehension and answer the following questions given below.

None

14.

Who played the matches between P and Q?

Read the following comprehension and answer the following questions given below.

None

Cannot determine

None

15.

If P played 45 matches then what is the difference of R and T's matches?

Read the following comprehension and answer the following questions given below.

None

16.

If it’s possible to make a meaningful word from the 2nd, 4th, 5th, and 6th letters of the word 'PRIORITY', then which will be the last letter of the word? Mark ‘X’ if no such word can be formed, ‘M’ if more than 1 such word can be formed.

None

17.

Who is a colleague of A?

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight scientists—A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H—work in three different research departments: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. There are at least two scientists in each department. B works in Physics and is the only one who works with F. A and D work in the same department, but not with B. G is a Biology scientist and does not work with E. C works in the same department as H.

None

18.

How many scientists work in Biology?

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Three

Two

Four

Cannot be determined

None of these

None

19.

Which of the following pairs of scientists work together?

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A, C

E, H

C, G

D, E

C, B

None

20.

Which of the following statements is correct? I) E and D are colleagues. II) F works in Physics. III) G and C are colleagues.

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Only I is correct

Only II is correct

Only III is correct

Both I and II are correct

Both II and III are correct

None

21.

Who is likely to be a Chemistry scientist?

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Cannot be determined

None of these

None

22.

In the given word 'DISCOVERY', if the vowels are changed to the next letter and the consonants are changed to the previous letters as per the alphabetical series, and alphabets are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then which letter would be 5th to the right of 4th letter from the left end?

None

23.

If M is married to Q, how is M related to T?

Study the following information and answer the question accordingly.

In a family of six people P, Q, R, S, T and U, there are two married couples. Q is an engineer and the grandfather of T. U is the grandmother of R and is a housewife. There is one engineer and one teacher in the family. P is the father of R and is married to S. R is studying in school.

Grandmother

Mother

Aunt

Cannot be determined

None of these

None

24.

How is S related to T?

Study the following information and answer the question accordingly.

Mother

Father

Aunt

Uncle

Cannot be determined

None

25.

What is the profession of S?

Study the following information and answer the question accordingly.

Housewife

Engineer

Teacher

Unemployed

Cannot be determined

None

26.

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'COMPUTATION', each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet?

One

Two

Three

None

More than three

None

27.

Which of the following pairs sit as immediate neighbors?

Read the following comprehension and answer the following questions given below. Eight people E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L are sitting in a circle facing the center. H is sitting third to the right of F. E is sitting third to the left of H. G is sitting third to the right of E. L is an immediate neighbor of E and G. Only one person sits between J and K.

E, G

L, J

F, K

I, J

Cannot be determined

None

28.

Four of the five options are same in certain way find the odd one out?

None

29.

Four of the five options are same in certain way find the odd one out?

Cannot be determined

None

30.

How many people are sitting between G and H?

One

Two

Three

Four

Cannot be determined

None

31.

Who could possibly be sitting to the left of I?

Cannot be determined

None

32.

If in the number '37139246' digits which are less than 5 are multiplied by two and digits greater than 5 are divided by two then what is the value of the sum of all digits?

None

33.

How many athletes finished before B?

Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:

There are five athletes A, B, C, D, and E who finished a race. E finished before B but after A. C finished after B and D. B did not finish first or second.

One

Two

Three

Cannot be determined

Four

None

34.

If the athletes were arranged according to their finishing times, who would be in the middle?

Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:

There are five athletes A, B, C, D, and E who finished a race. E finished before B but after A. C finished after B and D. B did not finish first or second.

None

35.

What place did E finish in?

Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:

There are five athletes A, B, C, D, and E who finished a race. E finished before B but after A. C finished after B and D. B did not finish first or second.

First

Second

Third

Fourth

Cannot be determined

None

1 out of 35

Get exam-ready with Learntheta’s Free IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test, created according to the latest IBPS PO exam pattern. This full-length online mock test helps aspirants practice under real exam conditions and improve their performance before the actual test.

The mock test includes:

Quantitative Aptitude
Reasoning Ability
English Language

Designed by experts, our IBPS PO Prelims mock test focuses on important topics, difficulty trends, and time management strategies. Detailed solutions are provided to strengthen your understanding and enhance accuracy.

Start practicing today with our free IBPS PO mock test and increase your chances of clearing the prelims stage with confidence.

Next Mock: SBI Clerk Free Mock Test